You can understand the literal, you can't understand the spiritual. For example, you misinterpret Isa 53 by trying to make the suffering servant the Jews,
The problem is that you rely on Christian translators to tell you how to read the text. So you don't know how they've subtly altered the text from the original, because you can't read it.
Here is Isaiah 53:8. And before I quote it, allow me to preface it with another two verses. Its a litte long, but bear with me:
Deut. 34:8 "And the Children of Israel wept (plural) [over] Moses..."
Here I've established that when speaking about Israel, the verse doesn't hesitate to use the plural when speaking about the whole nation.
Ex. 19:2 "And traveled (plural) from Refidim and they came (plural) to the desert of Sinai. And they encamped (plural) in the desert. And Israel encamped (singular) there opposite the mountain."
Here I've established that the Tanach doesn't hesitate to switch between singular and plural when discussing the nation.
And now:
מעצר - from (prefix) imprisonment (lit. stopping)
וממשפט - and from (prefix) judgment
לקח - taken (masculine, singular, third person - he was taken)
ואת - and (prefix) [direct object pointer]
דורו - his (suffix) generation
מי - who
ישוחח - will converse (masculine, singular, third person)
כי - because/that
נגזר - cut (third person, passive, singular)
מארץ - from (prefix) land
חיים - living
מפשע - from sin
עמי - my (suffix) nation
נגע - plague
למו - to them
So just to jot that in normal English
From imprisonment and judgement he was taken. And his generation who will tell that he was cut from the land of living from sin [of] my nation, a plague to them.
Notice that last word there למו "to them". I once counted 50 cases of the word with all of them clearly meaning in context "to them". Here's just a few:
Deut. 33:2 "And He shined from Se'ir to them (למו)."
Psa. 119:165 "Much peace to those that love the Your Torah, and there should not be to them (למו) a stumbling block"
Psa. 55:20 "that there is no passing for them (למו) and they did not fear G-d."
What your translators did was they considered the word as though the suffix was just ו which is the masculine, singular suffix. However, as established above, the word is made up of two parts the prefix ל meaning 'to' and the suffix
מו meaning third person plural masculine. An example would be Deut. 32:32 "their grapes (ענב
מו) are grapes of bitterness".
What I've essentially done here, is show you that verse 8 momentarily switches back to plural almost as if to remind you that the subject is the nation of Israel who is suffering.
but no Jew, except Jesus was pierced through or crushed for my sins, God has not caused my iniquities to fall on any other Jew,
No where in this chapter is the word "pierced" found.
And in fact Jews were crushed for your sin. In fact, probably for your own grandparents' sins. Think about how many Christians sinned by falsely libeling Jews, torturing Jews and killing Jews. We have an entire 2,000 year history of suffering at the hands of other nations.
The Jews are not a guilt offering for me and the Jews can't justif any, let alone many.
No where does verse 10 indicate that the subject would make itself a guilt offering for someone else.
Essentially what I've shown you here, is that your "spiritual interpretation" is based on mistakes in rendering the text. That's not a spiritual interpretation. That's your religious translators and NT authors trying to reinterpret what the text is actually saying in order to fit their agenda of fitting Jesus into the Tanach
You reject Jesus as the Messiah because He did not fulfill all of the Messianic prophecies. The NT tells us Jesus is coming back. Then He will fulfill the rest of them and then the prophesy of Zech 12:10 will be fulfilled.
And the NT is a fabrication. Simple as that. The authors had no other means to explain why Jesus hadn't fulfilled any of the explicit messianic prophecies. So they reinterpreted a bunch of Tanach verses to implicitly be about Jesus and claimed that the rest would be fulfilled in this new idea they called the "Second Coming".
I have no illusion that I can convince you of anything. What I have just said is true. The NT was inspired by God just as the OT is. I have an advantage because I have studied both testaments.
That seems to only have worked to your detriment in that now you can't read the text on its own.
No bone was to be broken in the Passover lamb. Now that seems like a strange requirement for a lamb that was about to be killed and eaten until you read in the NT that Jesus legs were not broken(Jn 19:33) and they should have been even if He was already dead
The bones could not be broken while one was eating the Passover. You'll notice that the prohibition for breaking the bones is found after the command to eat it at home.
It doesn't seem like a strange requirement at all. The theme of Passover is freedom from bondage. We don't break the bones because that's what a destitute person does as he tried to scrape out the last bits of food. It has nothing to do with Jesus. And that story is probably a fabrication anyway.
They also pierced His side which is mentioned in Zech 12:10. Behold the Lamb of God(Jn 1:29), John the Baptist recognized Jesus as such.
That's not what it says in Zech. is it. In fact it says "that they pierced". How many people pierced Jesus? Your mind jumps to it because you see a key word.
Your explanation is way to limited. dabar can mean much more than you have included. It is the root of dibra, which can also mean order and is so translated in the jps. and other Hebrew to English translations.
My translation is not limited. You just don't realize that your translators choose English words that are similar to the intent of a Hebrew word that best fits the context to make it flow well in English.
Dibra can't be a root word because it has more than three letters. I don't know where you got this word from, but the root of it is DaVaR, just as before. We use it for the Hebrew name of the 10 commandments, "the 10 DiBRoTH (pl. of dibra)". It means the 10 sayings.
Luke 24:44 Jesus says the Law of Moses, the prophets and the Psalms were written of Him.
Luke 24:27 tells us that beginning with Moses, Jesus explained the things concerning Himself in all the Scriptures. At that time, all they had was the OT.
So what?
Behold the tabernacle is among men and He shall dwell among them, and they shall be His people and God Himself will be among them. (Rev 21:3).
And the Word became flesh and dwelt(literally tabernacled) among us...Jn 1:14
Jesus can be found in the OT, if you know how to look for Him
Of course you understand that the NT authors had the Tanach opened in front of them when they were writing the NT. So they took the opportunity to reinterpret new meanings into the text so that it all referenced their subject. I can do the same thing with my mother in law's dog. That's not a special thing.
