Ehav4Ever
Well-Known Member
Actually, that is not true. It was not the Jewish community in Israel that "allowed" a translation to be made into Greek. According to some historians the Jews of Egypt who did not know Hebrew very well translated the text into Greek. This translation no longer exists.Side question. The Hebrew scriptures were allowed to be translated into Koine Greek, which I would conclude was not against any law as such?
Yet, their translation in Greek was never considered to be equal to the original. In the Talmud, it is clearly stated that no translation can fully translate ideas from the Torah. The closest one was the Aramaic translations because Aramaic has a lot of similarities to Hebrew. YET, the Aramaic never was considered an equal to the original. That is when they read or verbally translate the Hebrew Torah it was always twice in Hebrew and once in Aramaic translation.
Also, it must be noted that translation are a form of commentary. Professional translators recognize this, and often translations have to come with a lot of commentary to explain concepts more easily available to someone who knows the original text and the culture behind it.
Thus, no Jew ignores the plain sense of the Hebrew text in order to make a foreign concept work in translation.
Again, I am not trying to tell you what to beleive about your translation. That is not for me to dictate to anyone.