Nicholas
Bodhicitta
Therefore?
The source of Sanskrit was not human, but divine.
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Therefore?
And you really can't expect any serious respect for that when all the etymological deconstruction shows an undeniable development from earlier Indo-European languages. Linguists are not going to arbitrary reject the scholarly and scientific consensus simply because some Hindus don't like the demonstrable truth.The source of Sanskrit was not human, but divine.
And you really can't expect any serious respect for that when all the etymological deconstruction shows an undeniable development from earlier Indo-European languages. Linguists are not going to arbitrary reject the scholarly and scientific consensus simply because some Hindus don't like the demonstrable truth.
We don't know it all, but we have learned quite a lot. Again, many Muslims know with certainty that the original language of humanity (and the tongue personally spoken by God) is in fact Arabic. All human languages (including Sanskrit) descend for it.Expect respect for a tradition not of our time or place? - no of course not - we moderns know all. Doubt it; just ask one.
We(Hindus) don't care about proofs, etc because we accept it as the truth?
The source of Sanskrit was not human, but divine.
How do you explain the structural and grammatical similarities between Sanskrit, ancient Greek, Classical Latin, Old Persian, Russian, Lithuanian, and a host of other languages spoken in Asia and Europe over the past 6,000 years? Is Sanskrit the mother tongue of all of them? If so that makes it not so divine; why would a divine language become so bastardized and "corrupted"?
And you really can't expect any serious respect for that when all the etymological deconstruction shows an undeniable development from earlier Indo-European languages. Linguists are not going to arbitrary reject the scholarly and scientific consensus simply because some Hindus don't like the demonstrable truth.
As far as your latter argument goes, this would also apply to Hindu, Bengali, Nepali, Guajarati, Marwari, Sinhalese, Punjabi and so on. By the claims of some Hindutva-types, it would also apply to Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam etc.
We don't know it all, but we have learned quite a lot. Again, many Muslims know with certainty that the original language of humanity (and the tongue personally spoken by God) is in fact Arabic. All human languages (including Sanskrit) descend for it.
Do you respect that tradition? It's clearly untrue, but what does that matter? You reject it out of modernist arrogance!
You can believe whatever you want. If you don't really care what can actually be proven then what more is there to say?
Do we not?
Within sadhana, one is journeying to find out the truth. If you're accepting things on blind faith, you won't get anywhere.
I feel that this is to Hinduism as Creationism is to Christianity and Islam.
Similarly, the Sanskrit of Riks....
Seers and sages just saw these in their supreme mediation states, which are timeless states. Although we say that the sages 'saw' the Riks, it is fundamentally wrong, since the Riks are timeless 'Word' pervading this creation.
We do apply objectivity and scrutiny but we also need something as a starting place.
OK, but atanu, do you think it is necessarily the case that Sanskrit originated from the seeings of the rishis, or might they have received the message of the Vedas in an existing natural language?
Incidentally, the validity of the reconstructions is really neither here nor there, as we can see the grammatical links and similarities without them. The reconstructions just firm up the science.
Why does that require rejecting the discoveries of linguistic science?
EDIT: I'm not trying to insult you here, I am actually curious about why you think so.
First. There is no rejecting of discoveries of phenomenal level, as such. But what appears as undeniable proof to a group, may not appear to be such to another. I have not been shown any unequivocal proof that Sanskrit descended from any other language. The whole proto thing is a hypothesis for which there is no direct evidence. Further, there is no ultimate fixed truth in science. This is true even of physics, what to speak of linguistics.
Second. A follower of vedanta will know that as per vedanta there are two kinds of knowledge both of which though valuable, however, are not at same level of truth. As per vedanta, the knowldge of empirical science is called avidya, since it is based of a false premise that presumes the division between subject and object to be real. And there are other reasons. As per vedanta, knowledge of self-spirit is vidya.
Regarding the question on source of language (word or vac) I cite an old post.
So Where is sHe now? | ReligiousForums.com
The membership of Sanskrit in the Indo-European language family is one of the most attested facts in science, although not of 100% fixed of course. Of course, if you don't believe that you just don't. If the evidence isn't enough for you, then that's what it is.
what never ceases to amaze me is this ''The membership of Sanskrit in the Indo-European language family'', ...why cant it be the other way arround , ......why is it not common to posit that european culture including its Language was heavily influenced if not even born out of Aryan culture , ...and by Aryan I mean noble as in Vedic , ...not that europe was the origin , but that europe was the recipient of Vedic culture , ....and that which was once the great Bharatvarsha spread further than the India of today ???
why do we have to put things into tidy boxes and label them indo european , greco roman , ....? ...these are such pointless and miniscule divisions of time .....so many cultures come and go , but one remains , , ...Sanatana Dharma , why ? Sanskrit and the law it conveys , ...
namaskaram Kirran ji
what never ceases to amaze me is this ''The membership of Sanskrit in the Indo-European language family'', ...why cant it be the other way arround , ......why is it not common to posit that european culture including its Language was heavily influenced if not even born out of Aryan culture , ...and by Aryan I mean noble as in Vedic , ...not that europe was the origin , but that europe was the recipient of Vedic culture , ....and that which was once the great Bharatvarsha spread further than the India of today ???
why do we have to put things into tidy boxes and label them indo european , greco roman , ....? ...these are such pointless and miniscule divisions of time .....so many cultures come and go , but one remains , , ...Sanatana Dharma , why ? Sanskrit and the law it conveys , ...
The archaeology shows that the cultures from which the various languages descend were from central Asia, not India. The Out of India Theory is shown to be archaeologically, logistically and linguistically preposterous.