Bob the Unbeliever
Well-Known Member
No? You are determined to see homosexuality as other than sexual immorality? May be there were no homosexuals amongst the Jews in Jesus' day. I would not think so. They would have been packed off and excommunicated to the Greek cities. Jesus would not even speak to the inhabitants of the Greek cities.
Yet he affirmed "his" law (Mat 5:18, Luk 16:17, Lev 20:13), of which in Lev 20:13, "homosexuality = abomination." In Daniel an abomination is said to cause desolation.
Three Hebrew words connote abomination: תּוֹעֵבָה (toʿevah), שֶׁקֶץ (shekeẓ, sheqeẓ) or שִׁקּוּץ (shikkuẓ, shiqquẓ), and פִּגּוּל (piggul); toʿevah is the most important of this group. It appears in the Bible 116 times as a noun and 23 times as a verb and has a wide variety of applications, ranging from food prohibitions (Deut. 14:3), idolatrous practices (Deut. 12:31; 13:15), and magic (Deut. 18:12) to sex offenses (Lev. 18:22 ff.) and ethical wrongs (Deut. 25:14–16; Prov. 6:16–19). Common to all these usages is the notion of irregularity, that which offends the accepted order, ritual, or moral.
Dude! Jesus hung around exclusively with ... men. He never married. You can argue a very strong case he was gay, as depicted in the stories.
Look at the gospel of John, and the way it is worded. John and Jesus? Very close. Perhaps even lovers.
Open your eyes.