I had No idea that David was ever considered as a priest forever in the manner of Melchizedek - Psalm 110:4 __________
After all, dead David still did Not ascend ( be resurrected ) according to Acts 2:34.
Please notice who God made as both Lord and Christ at Acts 2:36,35. I find that Not to be David.
Rather, I find that under Christ that David will be 'Prince' on Earth under Christ as noted at Ezekiel 34:24. - Psalm 45:16; Isaiah 32
I wonder if you had Matthew 22:41-45 in mind because the religious leaders were looking or hoping for a descendant of David _______
To me, verses 43-44 is Jesus establishing someone more than David to be Messiah because Jesus is David's Lord.
When reading of prophesies, not all of every verse prior or after the verses stated, are pertaining to the prophesy.
Only parts of the chapter, and only a specific verse, was related to David. And, in any case, it is a conflation to say that ‘David was (or was not) resurrected or made Christ or Lord’. That aspect was not in the prophesy about David. The only thing that matters was that the throne of David would be ‘an everlasting throne’ (in spirituality) - a kingly placeholder for the root and offspring of David, Jesus Christ.
David, a priest:
“[A Priest] must offer up their prayers, thanksgivings, sacrifices. He becomes their representative in "things pertaining unto God." He may become also (though this does not always follow) the representative of God to man. The functions of the priest and prophet may exist in the same person.”
(From Bible Hub : Priest)
David IS numbered among the Priests (See 1 Chronicles 15:25–27). Note his clothing and his role which is like that of the Levites BUT he is not a Levite - which is where the analogy with Melchizedek comes in.
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Do you notice that Psalm 110:1 and Acts 2:34 do not say exactly the same things.
In Psalms, it is YHWH (‘LORD’) who says to ‘my Lord’. And the context is of the writer (or singer) speaking ABOUT David and what God said to him.
In Acts, it appears that it is David speaking about the ‘Lord’ (not YAHWEH) speaking to DAVID’s Lord.
My take: Trinitarian misquote as usual. Trinitarians cannot screw with the Hebrew text like they can with the Greek.
Do your own comparison and let me know what you think…. Why is there a difference in reference positions between the two quotes.