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Why Elohim if God is Absolutely One?

Tumah

Veteran Member
I don't have to answer any. All I have to do is stick the words in the Scriptures.
You see, that's wrong, because you do have to explain the grammatical inconsistency with your interpretation. You obviously can choose not to relate to the problem. But that's not going to make it go away, that's just going to be you ignoring the inconsistencies with your belief.

You have to explain what the "us" and 'our" in Gen 1:26, refers to.
And you have to explain the "his" in Gen. 1:27.

If you beleive God is the Creator of all languges, you have to explain the mistake he made using a singular noun with a plural ending.
Its not a mistake. The meaning of the title refers to the fact that G-d is the power behind all forces. There are many forces in the world and so this is reflected in the title Eloh-m.

Are you really suggesting Elohim, is not God?
No and its kind of weird that you're asking that since I've never said that.
I don't dance around the language, I insist using it exactly as written. You are the one dancing around it to try and disprove the Trinity.
You are dancing around the language as your responses don't take into account Biblical Hebrew grammar. Maybe you just don't realize it because you actually don't know Biblical Hebrew and so you don't realize the mistakes that you are making in your assumptions. But mistakes you are making.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
It isn't ''they''. I don't have a ''they'', in the G-d, Elohim. It works the same in English, we might write 'G-d stated ...', this doesn't mean that G-d doesn't have a plurality description. We don't read 'G-d', as more than one Deity, and thusly don't read ''Elohim'', as more than one Deity. Hence, no reason or sense to have a plural indicator for verbs.
Then you don't seem to be making an argument as much as stating an opinion without any basis for it.
If not, I'm not sure what your argument is.
I'm not convinced that you do either, honestly.
 

Fool

ALL in all
Premium Member
Why Elohim if God is Absolutely One?

Christians in general misunderstand the word Elohim when using it as an evidence for plurality in God. Trinity, that is. As time can be considered chronologically, and also psychologically, a word can also be looked at grammatically in terms of plurality of itself or psychologically as the plural related to it. I'll explain in more simpler words.

The word Elohim does mean plural but not of itself. I mean, of the subject, but of the object it points to. For example, "Elohim barah et hashamaim..." If Elohim, the subject was a word meant to be itself in the plural, the verb would by necessity have to follow the plural as in "baru," (created).

Let's take Abraham as an example to illustrate the case. Afterwards we will return to Elohim. We all know that originally, Abraham's name was Abram, and the name change was effected by occasion of the Covenant between himself and God, when the reason for the change was that Abraham would be the father of a host of nations. (Gen. 17:4,5) So, does the word Abraham mean plural? Yes, but not of the subject (Abraham) who continued to be one person. However, Abraham meant plural but of the object or "many nations."

Now, back to Elohim, there was a time in the very beginning, when the Hebrews considered God to be a local God: The God of the Hebrews, in opposite to the gods of the other nations. When they came to the enlightenment or understanding that God was absolutely One, and that He was the God of the whole Earth, the God of all the nations, they also came to understand that the plurality of Elohim was related to the object (the nations) and not of the subject, or Himself, Who remained absolutely One.

Grammatically, the singular for God is El, and the plural Elim, and not Elohim. Therefore, there is no plurality in Elohim per se but in what He relates to. The conclusion is that God is absolutely One and not a Trinity or Duality. Besides, God is also incorporeal, and there can be no plurality in incorporeality.

Ben


God most high is ONE. the elohim are aspects of the most High, El. H410 vs H430

in logic it is known as many to one, or one to many relationships.

and no, God has substance, or is corporeal, God doesn't have form, or can't be defined, delimited

El is both omniscient, omnipresent, and omnibenevolent
 
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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
God most high is ONE. the elohim are aspects of the most High, El. H410 vs H430

in logic it is known as many to one, or one to many relationships.

and no, God has substance, or is corporeal, God doesn't have form, or can't be defined, delimited


G-d can't take a form? Why not?
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
The absolute is impermanent in form.

why not?

because we know that energy can take different states of matter

i am in the Absolute and the Absolute is in me.

That seems like, I am in the father, and the father is in me

John 14:11

Jesus states this in various ways, actually. Jesus seems to make no actual distinction, between Himself, and the father. Thusly, He is stating/inferring, that 'G-d', is not limited to either /being outside Jesus, or, non-perfect manifestation, via Jesus. This at least, for this context /Jesus, indicates that it isn't meaningful to state that G-d isn't the form of Jesus.
Some churches disagree.
 

Fool

ALL in all
Premium Member
That seems like, I am in the father, and the father is in me

John 14:11

Jesus states this in various ways, actually. Jesus seems to make no actual distinction, between Himself, and the father. Thusly, He is stating/inferring, that 'G-d', is not limited to either /being outside Jesus, or, non-perfect manifestation, via Jesus. This at least, for this context /Jesus, indicates that it isn't meaningful to state that G-d isn't the form of Jesus.
Some churches disagree.

bingo, jesus said he would send another comforter. another one would come in the same Spirit but not the same form. the personality doesn't survive death, the energy does and becomes transformed into another form

For the living know that they will die, but the dead know nothing; they have no further reward, and even their name is forgotten.

regeneration = palingenesis = metempsychosis = reincarnation

the word reincarnation is a fairly new construct in relation to the other words.

Matthew 19:28
And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Titus 3:5

Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;


Jeremiah 18:4
And the vessel that he made of clay was marred in the hand of the potter: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make it.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
That doesn't support your claim. It talks of a Divine Council, but not one in which El was the head, and Yahweh was part of. It speaks of Yahweh being in a Divine Council, but there is no suggestion it is the Canaanite Divine Council, and in fact, such instances such as in Job, tells us that Yahweh was the head of it. So again, no evidence that Yahweh was in the the council of gods with El being the ultimate creator.
One of my big problems with Wikipedia is that people quote it as if it is gospel, even though I doubt they have fully read what they are quoting. Case in point, your source states that the origins of Yahweh are unknown. Under the Origins tab, it states that Yahweh was not a Canaanite god. It also states that Yahweh is absent in Canaanite stories. Basically, it was stating what I had said. There is no evidence that Yahweh was a Canaanite god.

So your argument is still false.
Yeah was sort of meaning the Pharisees helped cement it; yet you're right it was already established by then.
By the time the Pharisees come around, the idea is already established. Monotheism was already cemented in by the time the Pharisees arise.
Considering you seem unaware of the History of YHVH as possibly coming from the Canaanites, this is why in Genesis it is EL that Abraham spoke to, Egyptian cave engravings have the name EL, it was only after they came into Palestine they learned about YHVH, and the name changed.
Your source, wikipedia, states that Yahweh was not Canaanite. Your source states that it may have been from out of Egypt that Yahweh came.

In Genesis, we have separate names for G-d. There is El, Elohim and Yahweh. El and Yahweh are not the same character, they are distinctly different. The name never changed.

El was a Canaanite god. And since the ancient Hebrews form in Israel, yes, some probably worshipped El. Other branches of what would become the Hebrews also came from Egypt and Mesopotamia, so we aren't talking about one monolithic group, but a group that was formed from other groups.

El is also a generic term for god. Which helps explain why the term continues to be used later on as well, as it literally also meant god.

Why does Abraham speak to El? Because that was his god. That god doesn't change into Yahweh though. Instead, what happens is that that idea, the story of Abraham, is brought into a unifying Hebrew story, it is assimilated, and Yahweh is introjected into the understanding. That does not mean El and Yahweh were the same though.

Since the children of Israel had one God from a council of Gods with EL as the head, that is Henotheism.... Not sure of a time, they all had polytheism, other then when they'd just left Egypt.
I didn't deny that the ancient Hebrews were henotheistic, or at least some of them were. However, that does not suggest that G-d was from a council of gods with El as the head. There is absolutely no evidence for that, as I pointed out above.
Why where do you think it doesn't say what i think it says?
Because you cited the verse in support of an argument about the suffering servant. The verse says nothing about the suffering servant.
The holy arm is continued in Isaiah 53:1, and is a symbolic reference that links to other places, Psalms 98, etc.... In both we shall physically see God's salvation, which is why Yeshua was named Salvation.
It has nothing to do with Yeshua. Yeshua wasn't named salvation, he was named Yeshua.
Isaiah 52:10 continues through to Isaiah 52:13 which is the 'servant' reference.
Then why not quote verse 13 then? Verse 10 still says nothing about the suffering servant.
Yeshuat Eloheniu means the Salvation of our God, which comes from the words Yeshua Elohim, so when Yeshua read this, he saw his name referenced....
Nope. Not at all. Basically what you've done is taken two Hebrew words, transliterated them, and because they look similar, have concluded that they must be similar. That's not how language works.

Also, Yeshua was an extremely common name, so does that mean everyone named Yeshua would see their name referenced? Not at all.
It is also metaphoric, that the servant sent by God is Yeshua, who shall reveal the plan of salvation to his people, the same as the prophets declared....
No. Because the problem arises as to what Yeshua? Yeshua was an extremely common name. And in fact, there were a couple other so called messiahs by the name of Yeshua. There were also so called messiah by many different names, so your point largely is moot as it relies on special pleading.

Also, the prophets said nothing about Jesus. In Isaiah, the servant, in 49:3, is said to be Israel.
The only issue with this, is our people have told God they want nothing to do with the Messianic age, by denying the person sent with the guest-list.
Or Jesus wasn't the Messiah. Jesus did not fulfill the most basic Messianic promises, so why should we accept him as the Messiah? It seems to me that if G-d really wanted to show that Jesus was the Messiah, G-d would have had Jesus accomplish what was promised of the Messiah.
Basically instead they've chosen to kill their own salvation (Yeshua) for thirty pieces of silver (a price of a slave), as that is all their inheritance means to them. :(
That is ridiculous. You're trying to blame people for not accepting Jesus as the Messiah, because Jesus failed at the most basic Messianic promises. They didn't kill their own salvation (technically, it was Romans who killed Jesus, as Jesus was a criminal under Roman law), but G-d simply didn't appoint Jesus as the Messiah.

And that's coming from a Christian.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
...



Obviously not. I'm sure it's fun to invent definitions of what ''Christian'', means, but your credibility isn't helped by it.
First, not an invented definition of what "Christian" means. Christianity is extremely diverse, and easily allows for that diversity.

Nor did I mean to say that my credibility is increased by being a Christian. My point was that it isn't just Jews who see Jesus as not being the Messiah. Many Christians do not think Jesus was the Messiah, or at least the Jewish messiah.

Really, what the poster was doing was spreading anti-Semitism, as it is that very same attitude, the idea of Christ-killers, that led to much of the atrocities against the Jews that we have seen in history.
 

wizanda

One Accepts All Religious Texts
Premium Member
El and Yahweh are not the same character, they are distinctly different. The name never changed.
Exodus 6:3 and I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as EL Shaddai; but by my name Yahweh was not known to them.
The verse says nothing about the suffering servant.
Isaiah 52:10, speaks of the right arm of the lord, this is continued in Isaiah 53:1 with how is the arm of the lord revealed...

Therefore everything between is within the context i.e the servant is the person spoken about in Isaiah 52:10 Yeshua Elohim.
Yeshua wasn't named salvation
Yeshua means salvation in Hebrew. ;)
Then why not quote verse 13 then?
We get contexts, by reading the whole paragraphs within the text, not take one line out...This is what 'strain a gnat gain a camel' means.
Basically what you've done is taken two Hebrew words, transliterated them
The Strongs reference for them words is 'Yeshua Elohim'; yet if we look at the Hebrew grammar, it is Yeshuat Eloheinu which means the 'salvation of our God'.
Also, Yeshua was an extremely common name, so does that mean everyone named Yeshua would see their name referenced?
It isn't a persons name, it says the "salvation of our God", I'm saying if you knew you came to fulfill that specific prophecy, it would be reassuring that your own name is there within the Hebrew roots.
Also, the prophets said nothing about Jesus.
The full Hebrew version of his name was Yehoshua (Zecheriah 3), that should be translated as Joshua....

The shortened version of his name Yeshua, which has the root YSH are everywhere within the Tanakh.
Also, the prophets said nothing about Jesus. In Isaiah, the servant, in 49:3, is said to be Israel.
Isa 49:6 Indeed, he says, “It is too light a thing that you should be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel? I will also give you as a light to the Gentiles, that you may be my salvation (Yeshû‛âh) to the end of the earth.”

Which is why in the New testament, they quote that line (Luke 2:32, Acts 13:47), linking it, and implying it was Yeshua, as they could see the symbolism.

This refers to raising up Israel as well, thus though Jacob (Israel) is sometimes referred to specifically in Isaiah, at other times there are other possibilities.
Jesus did not fulfill the most basic Messianic promises, so why should we accept him as the Messiah?
It'd be wrong to do so, Yeshua didn't say he was the Messiah back then; it was said in a future context....

Which is after all the pre-Messanic prophecy has been fulfilled, as the prophets have declared.
It seems to me that if G-d really wanted to show that Jesus was the Messiah, G-d would have had Jesus accomplish what was promised of the Messiah.
We're dealing with real basic stuff, and you're contending the basic points; if we explain how the prophecies interlink as a snare across time, to remove the workers of iniquity...

Not sure how long that would take; yet you can find it here. :innocent:
G-d simply didn't appoint Jesus as the Messiah.
The person who fulfilled Isaiah 53, at the end of it (Isaiah 53:12), is then the person given the guest-list for the Messianic age, 'he shares his inheritance with the strong'.

So to clarify for you, we're not meant to believe Yeshua is the Messiah, it doesn't matter...

It matters, all the other stuff, what he had to say, how he was murdered, what was his teachings within the synoptic gospels, and do we actually follow them.
 
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wizanda

One Accepts All Religious Texts
Premium Member
Really, what the poster was doing was spreading anti-Semitism, as it is that very same attitude, the idea of Christ-killers, that led to much of the atrocities against the Jews that we have seen in history.
Not in the slightest, as someone of Jewish genealogy, it is more about understanding the context of our own book in light of what happened within history, rather than listening to the Rabbis interpretation...

Not sure why you jumped to that conclusion? :oops:
 

Fool

ALL in all
Premium Member
Not in the slightest, as someone of Jewish genealogy, it is more about understanding the context of our own book in light of what happened within history, rather than listening to the Rabbis interpretation...

Not sure why you jumped to that conclusion? :oops:


a man isn't judged by his appearance, or the sheep's clothing he wears, he's judged by his actions, his deeds.

we reap what we sow, mirroring.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Exodus 6:3 and I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as EL Shaddai; but by my name Yahweh was not known to them.
El, literally, means god. So not every time we see the term el, does it refer to the high god of the Canaanites. El Shaddai was not a name used for the high god of the Canaanites. It translates to something like G-d Almighty, or something like the god of heaven or the god of ... (what Shaddai means is up for debate).

So what this verse is saying is that they knew G-d, as in they knew the almighty god or the god of ..., but they didn't know his name as Yahweh. This isn't a change from one name to another, but from a title to an actual name.
Isaiah 52:10, speaks of the right arm of the lord, this is continued in Isaiah 53:1 with how is the arm of the lord revealed...

Therefore everything between is within the context i.e the servant is the person spoken about in Isaiah 52:10 Yeshua Elohim.
Okay, but lets acknowledge that you are now expanding on what you previously said. That's fine.

Yeshua means salvation in Hebrew. ;)
Not exactly. Yeshua, an alternative to Yehoshuah, derives from verb to deliver, to rescue. I guess maybe to save. It could translate to something like he saves, but I would argue that is wrong, and instead is only a translation in order to sync up with the Gospel of Matthew. It would be more like, he delivers. So not salvation.

If we take Yehoshuah, which often is used in such arguments to make Yeshua mean salvation, what we have instead is a compound. So it is something like Yeho and shua. Yeho being a reference to the name of G-d, while shua meaning a cry for help, or a saving cry. The name would literally mean something like shout to G-d when in need of help, or G-d is a saving cry.

So no. And really, we have many many accounts of other individuals named Yeshua.
We get contexts, by reading the whole paragraphs within the text, not take one line out...This is what 'strain a gnat gain a camel' means.
Then you should quote the whole paragraph, and not take one line out of context, as you did. By citing one verse, one line, you took it out of context, and are now only trying to put it into a larger context.
The Strongs reference for them words is 'Yeshua Elohim'; yet if we look at the Hebrew grammar, it is Yeshuat Eloheinu which means the 'salvation of our God'.
Do you actually read Hebrew? The Strong's reference is a very poor source to try to decipher the Hebrew. And often, it does basically exactly what I said you were doing. Yeshuat and Yeshua are different. One is a name, the other isn't. They don't mean the same thing. They have a similar root, but they still mean different things. I explained what Yeshua meant above.

It isn't a persons name, it says the "salvation of our God", I'm saying if you knew you came to fulfill that specific prophecy, it would be reassuring that your own name is there within the Hebrew roots.
Then that could pertain to every Yeshua who had ever thought that they were to fulfill a specific prophecy, and seeing that in Isaiah, the suffering servant is identified as Israel, that is a lot of Yeshuas. What you saying is a prophecy for Jesus, was never thought to be a prophecy for Jesus until long after the fact. It was only later reinterpreted after Jesus died.

The full Hebrew version of his name was Yehoshua (Zecheriah 3), that should be translated as Joshua....

The shortened version of his name Yeshua, which has the root YSH are everywhere within the Tanakh.
No on both accounts. Yehoshua was an alternative to Yeshua, or more correctly, Yeshua was the alternative. Both names were used independently of each other though. So we can't be sure that Jesus's name was actually Yehoshua, as it was a separate, but related name.

And the reason why the root of Yeshua is every where in the Tanakh, is because the name is a derivative of the verb meaning to deliver. The root had a different meaning, and thus was used. Not every time the root comes up, does it refer to Jesus or Yeshua.

The same is true with names today. In ancient germanic languages, my name, Dustin, comes from the term brave warrior. However, not every time that the term brave warrior is used does it mean that someone name Dustin is being referred to.

Isa 49:6 Indeed, he says, “It is too light a thing that you should be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel? I will also give you as a light to the Gentiles, that you may be my salvation (Yeshû‛âh) to the end of the earth.”

Which is why in the New testament, they quote that line (Luke 2:32, Acts 13:47), linking it, and implying it was Yeshua, as they could see the symbolism.

This refers to raising up Israel as well, thus though Jacob (Israel) is sometimes referred to specifically in Isaiah, at other times there are other possibilities.
The problem here is that you continue to think that just because two words are connected, as they look similar, or come from a familiar root, they must be equated. Not at all. That's not how language works.

Yes, Luke quotes that line, but he does so after the fact, after Jesus died. He could see symbolism there, that never existed until they forced it there. Before that, the verse had nothing to do with a Messiah figure. What you're doing is retrojecting a current idea into the past, and that never works. We have to look at what they thought at the time, not what someone later decided was true because it fit their own ideas.

The suffering servant was Israel.
It'd be wrong to do so, Yeshua didn't say he was the Messiah back then; it was said in a future context....

Which is after all the pre-Messanic prophecy has been fulfilled, as the prophets have declared.
Then Jesus is not the messiah. Maybe, if he comes back, he can be the messiah, but as it stands, that future context hasn't occurred, and he doesn't fulfill the basic messianic promise.

We're dealing with real basic stuff, and you're contending the basic points; if we explain how the prophecies interlink as a snare across time, to remove the workers of iniquity...

Not sure how long that would take; yet you can find it here. :innocent:
So he hasn't fulfilled the basic messianic promise, and thus he isn't the Messiah. You can do whatever mental gymnastics you want, but it doesn't matter. Jesus failed as the messiah, and that is all we can base it on.

The person who fulfilled Isaiah 53, at the end of it (Isaiah 53:12), is then the person given the guest-list for the Messianic age, 'he shares his inheritance with the strong'.

So to clarify for you, we're not meant to believe Yeshua is the Messiah, it doesn't matter...

It matters, all the other stuff, what he had to say, how he was murdered, what was his teachings within the synoptic gospels, and do we actually follow them.
That's not what Isaiah is saying. You're taking a very later belief, and trying to find views that maybe support it. By doing so, you have to take verses out of context and twist them, which is what you've done.

And at the end, your argument fails as "it doesn't matter."
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Not in the slightest, as someone of Jewish genealogy, it is more about understanding the context of our own book in light of what happened within history, rather than listening to the Rabbis interpretation...

Not sure why you jumped to that conclusion? :oops:
Being of Jewish genealogy means nothing when it comes to views. What you were saying, labeling Jews Christ killers, is the same exact things that those persecuting Jews did. Even today, Jews are called Christ killers and see hate because of that. You are demeaning another group because they don't believe the way you do.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
I think it should be less broad. For example, I don't call myself a Christian, because of some traditional differences.
I can definitely understand that, and I've struggled with the terminology for quite some time and I go back and forth. For me, I'm labeled it quite often anyway, so it has been easier to embrace it. But I get what you're saying.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Not exactly. Yeshua, an alternative to Yehoshuah, derives from verb to deliver, to rescue. I guess maybe to save. It could translate to something like he saves, but I would argue that is wrong, and instead is only a translation in order to sync up with the Gospel of Matthew. It would be more like, he delivers. So not salvation.

If we take Yehoshuah, which often is used in such arguments to make Yeshua mean salvation, what we have instead is a compound. So it is something like Yeho and shua. Yeho being a reference to the name of G-d, while shua meaning a cry for help, or a saving cry. The name would literally mean something like shout to G-d when in need of help, or G-d is a saving cry.
I tried this method earlier on in the thread. It didn't help.

I think the root of shua is meant to be "YSH3", with the first letter falling off in the compound like it does in Job 30:24. Its meant to be derived from "hoshea" (Joshua's original name), which I think is taken from the imperative form of the same root.
 

Fool

ALL in all
Premium Member
I tried this method earlier on in the thread. It didn't help.

I think the root of shua is meant to be "YSH3", with the first letter falling off in the compound like it does in Job 30:24. Its meant to be derived from "hoshea" (Joshua's original name), which I think is taken from the imperative form of the same root.

adam = melchizedek = joseph = joshua = elisha = asaph = hermes = hosea = yeshua
 

Fool

ALL in all
Premium Member
I'm a bit tired to play with you today. Maybe some other time.


rev 8:1 when the lamb opened the 7th seal there was silence in heaven for about the space of time, of 180 degrees.


be still and know I AM, i will be exalted among the heathen, i will be exalted in all the earth!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
 
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