Why is the literalness of the Bible so important?

[sealchan]

Historically factual?

I have many posts about this in a thread
"Nine Pieces Of Evidence That Confirm The Historical Accuracy Of The Bible"

Nine Pieces Of Evidence That Confirm The Historical Accuracy Of The Bible

and you are the second person who evaded why we have the nation of Israel .
if the Bible is fictitious. The fictional book you call the Bible probably mentions "Israel" or "Israelite" at least 2,000 times.

Can't beat the real thing, right?

Was Israel originally called Jacob?

Was Jacob a real person or was his story inspired by a story from another national epic (aka the Mahabharata)?

I've had a few threads on that.

Genesis and the Mahabharata

 

[InChrist]

Why would He want to communicate with human beings? We are just a small part of creation.

Maybe the reason is as simple, yet profound, as the scriptures indicate...LOVE.

 

[Shad]

So why is it so important that the Bible be interpreted literally?

Certain parts must be taken as literal or the house of cards collapses. The only difference between believers is what is necessary to maintain the narrative.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

A M.Div. degree in theology.

Jesus had No letters (degree) after his name, so it appears such a degree does Not match what Jesus taught.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Where is the evidence for two tribulations?

I find your ^ above ^ question to be a great interest because to me it is important. I'll try to help.
When the 1st-century Christians (Matthew 24:15-16) would see the ' abomination of desolation ' then they were to flee to the mountains (Pella).
That happened in the year 66 when the Romans first appeared, faithful Christians left un-faithful Jerusalem for Pella, So when the Roman armies (abomination of desolation) returned in the year 70 there were No faithful Christians left in un-faithful Jerusalem. That was the ' minor ' or ' limited ' fulfillment of Matthew chapter 24.
Compare that with Luke 19:43-44 because that is exactly what the Roman armies did before destroying Jerusalem.

Luke chapter 21 and Matthew 24:21 is in connection to a 'greater' fulfillment or the 'MAJOR' fulfillment in connection to the great tribulation of Revelation 7:14; Revelation 7:9.
Thus, the modern-day fulfillment bridges a very long gap since the year 70.
So, the ' immediate ' of Matthew 24:29 is 'Not immediately in time', but immediate as the next step or happening.
That next step or that gap happening is set for our day of Revelation 1:10, our time period.

 

[sooda]

Jesus had No letters (degree) after his name, so it appears such a degree does Not match what Jesus taught.

And you're like Jesus, no degree.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

And you're like Jesus, no degree.

I find the disciples of Jesus were considered as ' unlettered ' men, ' ordinary ' men - Acts of the Apostles 4:13.
In other words, they had No formal higher-education ' letters ' after their names.
What made them 'smart' (educated) was that the people recognized that they were associated with Jesus.
So, where did Jesus get his ' smarts ' but from the old Hebrew Scriptures.
Even by age 12 Jesus was already well-educated in the Scriptures.
Thus, Jesus could base his teachings on those Scriptures expounding or explaining them for us.
Jesus used logical reasoning on the Scriptures as the final authority or matters.
That is why Jesus often prefaced his statement with the words , " it is written...." meaning already written down recorded in the old Hebrew Scriptures. So, No degree from any man, or man-made organization is necessary.
Jesus used God's Word (Scripture) as the final authority on matters considering Scripture as 'religious truth' - John 17:17.

 

[sooda]

I find the disciples of Jesus were considered as ' unlettered ' men, ' ordinary ' men - Acts of the Apostles 4:13.
In other words, they had No formal higher-education ' letters ' after their names.
What made them 'smart' (educated) was that the people recognized that they were associated with Jesus.
So, where did Jesus get his ' smarts ' but from the old Hebrew Scriptures.
Even by age 12 Jesus was already well-educated in the Scriptures.
Thus, Jesus could base his teachings on those Scriptures expounding or explaining them for us.
Jesus used logical reasoning on the Scriptures as the final authority or matters.
That is why Jesus often prefaced his statement with the words , " it is written...." meaning already written down recorded in the old Hebrew Scriptures. So, No degree from any man, or man-made organization is necessary.
Jesus used God's Word (Scripture) as the final authority on matters considering Scripture as 'religious truth' - John 17:17.

You and I don't have the advantage of hanging out with Jesus or working knowledge of the symbolisms of first century communication.

 

[sooda]

I find your ^ above ^ question to be a great interest because to me it is important. I'll try to help.
When the 1st-century Christians (Matthew 24:15-16) would see the ' abomination of desolation ' then they were to flee to the mountains (Pella).
That happened in the year 66 when the Romans first appeared, faithful Christians left un-faithful Jerusalem for Pella, So when the Roman armies (abomination of desolation) returned in the year 70 there were No faithful Christians left in un-faithful Jerusalem. That was the ' minor ' or ' limited ' fulfillment of Matthew chapter 24.
Compare that with Luke 19:43-44 because that is exactly what the Roman armies did before destroying Jerusalem.

Luke chapter 21 and Matthew 24:21 is in connection to a 'greater' fulfillment or the 'MAJOR' fulfillment in connection to the great tribulation of Revelation 7:14; Revelation 7:9.
Thus, the modern-day fulfillment bridges a very long gap since the year 70.
So, the ' immediate ' of Matthew 24:29 is 'Not immediately in time', but immediate as the next step or happening.
That next step or that gap happening is set for our day of Revelation 1:10, our time period.

Yes. .. and I see NO evidence for a second tribulation. Revelation makes it very clear that John of Patmos is your brother in tribulation and that this will come to pass shortly, soon, within a generation. (40 years)

Does it make sense to you that Jesus or John the Revelator would be talking to people thousands of years in the future when the objective of the letter is to give encouragement to the 7 churches and Christians letting them know that Jesus won!

Matthew and Luke are probably referring to events of 70 AD. The Scofield heresy and Hal Lindsey have promoted the futuristic view of Revelation for their own agenda.. as did the Jesuit priest Ribera who was countering the Reformation accusations that Rome was the Whore of Babylon and the Pope was the anti-Christ.

It just doesn't wash..

 

[Jainarayan]

Jesus had No letters (degree) after his name, so it appears such a degree does Not match what Jesus taught.

What did he say about Adam and Eve?

 

[MJFlores]

Was Israel originally called Jacob?

Was Jacob a real person or was his story inspired by a story from another national epic (aka the Mahabharata)?

I've had a few threads on that.

Genesis and the Mahabharata

Was Israel originally called Jacob?

Was Jacob a real person or was his story inspired by a story from another national epic (aka the Mahabharata)?

I've had a few threads on that.

Genesis and the Mahabharata

Somethin' like that.

 

[Katzpur]

Because Jesus was supposed to have redeemed us and removed the “original sin”.

At least some of us pseudo-Christians believe that He did. "Real Christians" apparently think His Atonement didn't cover Adam's sin. Don't ask me why they exclude him, but they do. And then they go so far as to suggest that God is going to hold everybody who has ever lived responsible for Adam's sin.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

You and I don't have the advantage of hanging out with Jesus or working knowledge of the symbolisms of first century communication.

Oh, but we do have the advantage of 'hanging out with the Bible' which has Jesus working knowledge.......
Hanging out just as those 1st-century people did at Acts 17:11 by searching or researching Scripture each day.
Searching daily shows they were diligent in their study of God's Word.
I am wondering which one of the 1st-century symbolisms you have in mind.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

What did he say about Adam and Eve?

Jesus made reference to Adam and Eve at Matthew 19:4-6 in connection to Genesis 2:24.
Since the recorded Jewish ancestral records were kept in the temple (1 Chronicles) and Jesus was at the temple, then Jesus could have pointed out that 1 Chronicles naming Adam was wrong.
Also, No one said Luke 3:38 was wrong. No 1st-century person recorded that listing Adam was wrong.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Yes. .. and I see NO evidence for a second tribulation. Revelation makes it very clear that John of Patmos is your brother in tribulation and that this will come to pass shortly, soon, within a generation. (40 years)
Does it make sense to you that Jesus or John the Revelator would be talking to people thousands of years in the future when the objective of the letter is to give encouragement to the 7 churches and Christians letting them know that Jesus won!
Matthew and Luke are probably referring to events of 70 AD. The Scofield heresy and Hal Lindsey have promoted the futuristic view of Revelation for their own agenda.. as did the Jesuit priest Ribera who was countering the Reformation accusations that Rome was the Whore of Babylon and the Pope was the anti-Christ.
It just doesn't wash..

40 years for a generation? Some people have children in their 20's and refer to them as the next generation.
People even mention about 3 generations being alive at the same time frame. (overlapping generations)

Those 7 congregations (a church is the people Not the building) are symbolic of congregations today.
There is No Pope anti-Christ in 1st John mentioned, nor Babylon the Great being Rome, that is wrong.
Please tell us when Matthew 24:21 happened in the year 70 ___________ I find WWI, WWII was worse.
Plus, the BIG clue is Revelation 1:10 because the setting, or time frame for Revelation is Not the 1st century.
Remember: Revelation was written well after the year 70. So, Revelation 7:14 can't be 70.
John was brought in vision to the 'Lord's Day' - Revelation 1:10. That was Not the 1st century.
The Lord's Day, or the Day of our Lord, includes the coming 'glory time' of Matthew 25:31-33; 1 Corinthians 1:8;1 Corinthians 5:5.
The Lord's Day includes fulfillment of the 16 Revelation visions deals with future events, Not 1st century events.
Revelation 12:12 has Not yet been fufilled, nor has Hebrews 2:14 B when Jesus destroys Satan.
Brace yourself because 1 Thessalonians 5:2-3 is still a surprise happening ahead of us.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Wasn’t that the purpose of the redemption? Why would he let mankind continue to live in suffering and pain? Where’s the proof that mankind is even redeemed or saved? Has anyone ever returned to verify it?

I find Jesus, as Messiah, could appear any time on Earth 'after' Genesis 3:15 ( 1st prophecy uttered )
The time was right for Jesus to appear in the 1st century. That is why the 1st-century people were in ' expectation ' of Messiah - Luke 3:15
If the time was cut short, then none of us would have the opportunity to be born and think who we would like as Sovereign over us.
Genesis 1:28 would have to come to pass first. Earth would have to be filled or populated first.
If mankind lived by the Golden Rule would we see the amount of suffering and pain as we do today________
Rather, it is man who has dominated man to man's hurt or injury - Ecclesiastes 8:9.
Plus, the passing of time has allowed for all to see that man's rule over Earth has Not succeeded.

 

[sooda]

40 years for a generation? Some people have children in their 20's and refer to them as the next generation.
People even mention about 3 generations being alive at the same time frame. (overlapping generations)

Those 7 congregations (a church is the people Not the building) are symbolic of congregations today.
There is No Pope anti-Christ in 1st John mentioned, nor Babylon the Great being Rome, that is wrong.
Please tell us when Matthew 24:21 happened in the year 70 ___________ I find WWI, WWII was worse.
Plus, the BIG clue is Revelation 1:10 because the setting, or time frame for Revelation is Not the 1st century.
Remember: Revelation was written well after the year 70. So, Revelation 7:14 can't be 70.
John was brought in vision to the 'Lord's Day' - Revelation 1:10. That was Not the 1st century.
The Lord's Day, or the Day of our Lord, includes the coming 'glory time' of Matthew 25:31-33; 1 Corinthians 1:8;1 Corinthians 5:5.
The Lord's Day includes fulfillment of the 16 Revelation visions deals with future events, Not 1st century events.
Revelation 12:12 has Not yet been fufilled, nor has Hebrews 2:14 B when Jesus destroys Satan.
Brace yourself because 1 Thessalonians 5:2-3 is still a surprise happening ahead of us.

Everyone knows the seven churches are seven congregations and they were REAL communities that Paul converted circa 50 AD.

40 years is a generation all thru the Bible.. Life expectancy wasn't great, people married and had children early.

The Israelites wandered in the desert 40 years, a generation.

When and how long is "This Generation"?

79 Bible verses about Generations

Peter and Paul and Nero were all dead before the destruction of the Temple..

1 John 2:18 tells us exactly who the antiChrists are.

The Whore of Babylon is Israel.. Israel is called whore and harlot over and over again for chasing after false gods.

The Roman emperor is the beast.

So much of the symbolism is simple and straight forward.

Satan has been bound.. That's why there are no more demons.

Humanity has already been redeemed. Jesus died on the cross.

So WHERE in the Bible does it say "second tribulation" or "great tribulation"?

 

[sooda]

Oh, but we do have the advantage of 'hanging out with the Bible' which has Jesus working knowledge.......
Hanging out just as those 1st-century people did at Acts 17:11 by searching or researching Scripture each day.
Searching daily shows they were diligent in their study of God's Word.
I am wondering which one of the 1st-century symbolisms you have in mind.

Hard to say.. Apocalyptic literature was VERY popular from about 300 BC thru 100 AD... and it was all very symbolic and cryptic like the Revelation letter.

Either you go with what John wrote, that it would happen shortly, soon, within a generation or forget it.

 

[Jainarayan]

Jesus made reference to Adam and Eve at Matthew 19:4-6 in connection to Genesis 2:24.

That's an inference and assumption it was Adam and Eve.

 

[Jainarayan]

At least some of us pseudo-Christians believe that He did.

Do I discern a note of sarcasm?

"Real Christians" apparently think His Atonement didn't cover Adam's sin. Don't ask me why they exclude him, but they do. And then they go so far as to suggest that God is going to hold everybody who has ever lived responsible for Adam's sin.

Given that, Eastern Orthodox Christians aren't real Christians either. They hold that Adam was one of the first, if not the first, to be liberated from the clutches of death when Jesus descended to the underworld (hell?) to free the souls waiting for redemption.