The Jesus of Paul and the Jesus of John pre-existed in heaven and created the material universe ─ that is, those versions of Jesus make him the gnostic demiurge ('craftsman'). We are not told in either case about the parentage of those Jesuses, except the claim that those Jesuses were descended from David.
Are you sure?
Matthew 13:15
"For this people’s heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears,and they have closed their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,hear with their ears,understand with their hearts and turn,
and I would heal them."
He claims prophecy of Isaiah 6:9-10
That is why he was accused of blasphemy several times.
He did not deny any of the accusations
In Mark 2, Jesus heals the paralytic man and forgives his sins. The scribes who were there called this blasphemy because only God has authority to forgive sin (see Isaiah 43:25). This was a claim to be God. Luke records this claim also in Luke 5:20.
Mark 12:35-37
"While Jesus was teaching in the temple courts, he asked, “Why do the teachers of the law say that the Messiah is the son of David?David himself, speaking by the Holy Spirit, declared:
'The Lord said to my Lord:
Sit at my right hand
until I put your enemies
under your feet.
David himself calls him ‘Lord.’ How then can he be his son?
The large crowd listened to him with delight."
The Jesus of Mark did not so pre-exist. He was an ordinary Jewish male until his baptism by JtB, at which point the heavens opened and God adopted him as [his] son, just as [he] had earlier adopted David as [his] son (Psalm 2:7). This view of Jesus is also asserted in Acts 13:33. Not only was he not descended from David, but he pointed out that a messiah doesn't need to be.
False , read Mark 12:35-37,Mark 14:53:-63
This agenda is already disproven by Christian Theists.
The Jesuses of Matthew and of Luke did not pre-exist either.They are the only two versions that are said to be the result of a divine insemination of a virgin. Their purported descent from David is a bungled job, since the two genealogies are incompatible, and, absurdly, are for Joseph, who most expressly is NOT Jesus' father.
Matthew follows the line of David's son Solomon, while Luke follows the line of Nathan, another Son of David. The end result is two distinct genealogies.
Joseph accepted Jesus(Gospel of Matthew 1:18-2:23)
One explanation, held by the church historian Eusebius, is that Matthew is tracing the primary, or biological, lineage while Luke is taking into account an occurrence of 'levirate marriage.' If a man died without having any sons, it was tradition for the man's brother to marry the widow and have a son who would carry on the deceased man’s name. According to Eusebius’s theory, Melchi (Luke 3:24) and Matthan (Matthew 1:15) were married at different times to the same woman (tradition names her Estha). This would make Heli (Luke 3:23) and Jacob (Matthew 1:15) half-brothers. Heli then died without a son, and so his (half-)brother Jacob married Heli’s widow, who gave birth to Joseph. This would make Joseph the 'son of Heli' legally and the 'son of Jacob' biologically. Thus, Matthew and Luke are both recording the same genealogy (Joseph's), but Luke follows the legal lineage while Matthew follows the biological.
Most conservative Bible scholars today take a different view, that Luke is recording Mary's genealogy and Matthew is recording Joseph's. Matthew is following the line of Joseph (Jesus' legal father), through David's son Solomon, while Luke is following the line of Mary (Jesus' blood relative), through David’s son Nathan. Since there was no specific Koine Greek word for 'son-in-law' Joseph was called the 'son of Heli' by marriage to Mary, Heli’s daughter. Through either Mary’s or Joseph’s line, Jesus is a descendant of David and therefore eligible to be the Messiah. Tracing a genealogy through the mother's side is unusual, but so was the virgin birth. Luke's explanation is that Jesus was the son of Joseph, 'so it was thought' (Luke 3:23).
I haven't read the Qur'an. I tried once, but it's not a narrative, rather a collection of pieces arranged according to some or other principle that, in my case, discourages enquiry.
Caliph Uthman compilied 'the Quran'.
Caliph Uthman took all the manuscripts , made one Quran - and burned all the other evidence.
But the bible is full of factual errors, and claims of miracles, and so on. Why should any impartial reader think it had any special authority or accuracy?
Please bring your evidence.
Why on earth would any faithful Jewish person want to place Jesus ─ well, the Jesuses of Paul and of John, not the synoptic three ─ between the individual and God, when up to then they'd been addressing God directly in prayer, and still do?
Again the same.
I have already explained that this is not correct.
And on what basis would they recognize Jesus as a Jewish messiah, when he was neither a civil, military, or religious leader of the Jewish people nor anointed by the Jewish priesthood ─ which quite specifically is what "messiah" actually means?
'I am' - Simple as that.
Clearly you don't understand the importance of the Tetragrammaton in Jewish culture,he was crucified for that claim.
You know why?
Numbers 23:19
"God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent:
hath he said, and shall he not do it?
or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?"
Here the emphasys is on the 'lie' , not on man.
Why then 'Son of Man' in the second sentence?
Also
Malachi 3:1
"I will send my messenger, who will prepare the way before me.Then suddenly the Lord you are seeking will come to his temple; the messenger of the covenant, whom you desire, will come,' says the Lord Almighty."
He clearly speaks hear about John the Baptist as a messenger.
Mark 1
The beginning of the good news about Jesus the Messiah,the Son of God, as it is written in Isaiah the prophet:
'I will send my messenger ahead of you,
who will prepare your way'
a voice of one calling in the wilderness,
'Prepare the way for the Lord,
make straight paths for him'."
And so John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness, preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins."
Apart from Isaiah,we see fullfilment in the Book of Malachi.
Why this nonsense claims?