You forgot to finish that sentence. You need to type
“to me” after the word ‘sentence’.
Easy! God is in a class of His own, Soapy. To me, and to every Christian I know, the word God means the creator and ruler of the universe and source of all moral authority; the supreme being.
To Christians, the word God is not just a label. It is infinitely more. It means:--
Goodness
Graciousness
Holiness
Infinity
Love
Mystery
The three ‘omnis’
Immutability
Eternal
Aseity
(Just
some of His attributes)
Many gods; One God.
***
(I think I’ve made a mistake, Soapy and I apologize. I assumed you were a Christian).
***
You have accused 3rd Angel and me of being 'a Satan’. And you have refused to apologize. You are turning truth on Its head.
The first quote response did not need embellishment - I meant to say ‘It does not make sense!’ QED!
The question I asked you was to define the WORD ‘GOD’. I explicitly stated that it is the MEANING of the word that I wanted you to show. But, as you wrote your answer you realise that defining the word would deny far more than you are willing to admit and so you change to defining what the JEWISH GOD is to Jewish and Christian believers - which strays from the explicitivity of the question i asked you.
And you again allude to the capitalisation or not in the word written (‘God’ / ‘god(s)’) which is of absolutely no relevance in the definition of the word ‘God’ (I capitalise the first letter purposely here!)
FYI, the word ‘God’ is no different to the word ‘King’ or ‘Master’ or ‘Lord’ of ‘Monarch’ or ‘Father’…. They are all TITLES of persons (let’s stick to sentient entities for the moment) in relevant status positions.
Virtually every religion cites their spiritual heads as ‘God(s)’. This is because - as you outlined - it points to an entity as a complete superior to all others in the same category.
They are RULERS, they make commandments that must be obeyed, they dictate the first order of obedience, their utterances (their word) is irresistible, etc.
‘Their word is irresistible’…. ‘Their word is GOD’ (a powerfully recursive statement!!)
And there it is: ‘The word of God(1)is God(2)’!!!
Do you not see it?
- The deity - the person so titled
- The defined class - Irresistible, ruling, almighty…
No one in scriptures DENIES that there are those (believable or not, real or unreal, mythical or true) also titled ‘God’. THEREFORE it is necessary to DISTINGUISH WHICH GOD is being referred to in every context.
For this reason ‘THE GOD BELIEVED ON BY THE ISRAELITES’ gave Moses a NAME to give to the Israelites by which He (THE GOD OF THE ISRAELITES) is to be distinguished FROM OTHER GODS (whom other tribes, nations, and people believed on).
Point of fact, did Abraham’s family not believe in Gods that they worshipped and prayed to?
This God, time and time again, declared himself by the definition of one in such a position as is right for him: ‘I am YOUR God’, ‘I am your ONLY GOD’.
The term ‘God’ is to be interpreted as:
- ‘Almighty one’, ‘Ruling Power’, ‘Commanding Authority’ etc
Now, because the (Jews) believed in only one God they had no need to DISTINGUISH this God from any other WITHIN the context of Jewish belief. Other religions still had to state WHICH GOD they were referring to in any context - by, for instance, adding in the name of the explicit God. In exchanges between Jews and other belief systems it was necessary to identify which God they referred to. Without being explicit by name, a Jew may be said, ‘Our God’ or ‘My God’, or ‘The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob’ (or similar Jewish forefather) and the other person might say, ‘Baal’, ‘Dagon’, ‘Isis’, ‘Horus’, etc. The Jews would have, originally identified their God with the name their God gave them to call him, ‘Yahweh’ (modern pronunciation and spelling, possibly) but over time, and due to fear of using that name irreverently, they stopped pronouncing the name and referred to their ruling spiritual authority as only ‘God’… and more because they kept themselves together as a tribe and nation they had no need to identify ‘which’ God they were referring to: ‘You are to have no OTHER GOD before me!’.
Therefore, this God said to them: ‘I am a greater God than all other deities whom are called Gods that you may have encountered: I am
God of all whom are called
God!’ - ‘I am
MIGHTIER than all whom are called
MIGHTY!’
- ‘God’ = ‘Mighty
- ‘God of all…’ = ‘Mightiest of all…’
- ‘I am Ruler over all who are called Rulers’
- ‘My commandments are irresistible: The word that goes out from me will by no means return until it has fulfilled that to which to it was sent out to achieve
The problem I see with trinitarian beliebers is that they fear to define the words and terms they use properly since doing so would expose the fact that they are more often incongruent with truth.
I asked you a simple question that should have resulted in a definition not of the meaning of the word ‘God’ - not WHOM IT IS APPLIED TO AS A PERSON OF JEWISH OR CHRISTIAN BELIEF.
Can you still answer ONLY what I asked you?
Why not?
Is it because it would expose scripture verses such as John 1:1 as fallacious interpretations in trinitarian belief:
- ‘In the beginning was the ruling word of YAHWEH; ‘Let there be light’, Let this and that be… etc
- ‘And the ruling command was with almighty authority’ (The word of Yahweh is with almighty power and authority)
- ‘And the utterance was almighty and irresistible over all things’ (Whatever Yahweh spoke was carried out in full authority and exactly as commanded)
Later, in the utterances of Yahweh, after Adam sinned, Yahweh uttered a word that salvation for mankind would come by way of the Seed of a Woman (a Sinless man - like the first sinless man, Adam) - and, in time designated by Yahweh, HIS UTTERANCE CAME TO FRUITION - it put on flesh (Which is to say that it came to be: re- the word that goes forth from Yahweh will come true!)
There is no direct reference to ‘WORD OF GOD’ pertaining to the man, Jesus, in John 1:1. John 1:1 refers to the creation of the world. Isaiah 42:1 is prophesy from Yahweh which states that He will SEND A SERVANT whom He will delight in and on whom He will anoint with His Spirit.
Why then would a servant be anointed with the spirit of God (thereby giving such a person the authority to use the spirit of Yahweh) if such a servant were Yahweh himself?