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Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
That’s my question:

Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?​
Inspired means moved or affected by some external force. For example, an artist or author may be inspired by a particular person or event.

Written means that someone has used a tool such as a pen or a keyboard to compose a written text.
 

Bthoth

Well-Known Member
Inspired means moved or affected by some external force. For example, an artist or author may be inspired by a particular person or event.

Written means that someone has used a tool such as a pen or a keyboard to compose a written text.
exactly. Many paintings are inspired by stories (external input).

A human being wrote the commandments to stone, inspired by previous information.

Just as the unveiling will be exactly the same.

It's not hard to accept or comprehend.
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
That’s my question:

Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?​
"Inspired by G-d" is neither authored by G-d, nor revealed by G-d, nor even written by G-d, please, right?

At certain occasions it could be even "inspired by the Devil", right? How to discern, please, right?

Regards
_________________
Searched:
 
Inspired by God?

I know for a fact that there exists a divisional arm of God (God being the Heavenly Father concept)

That goes by the name of the Holy Spirit. They exist in another dimensional reality. When they connect with a person, they can claim their dimensional reality is known as the Holyland. Not the Holyland here on our earth (Jerusalem) but a totally separate dimensional reality.

Imagine being on a ladder for example ‘Jacobs’s ladder’. Imagine we humanity live on the 5th rung. The Holy spirits exist on the 6th rung, the word ‘holy’ can not only mean to be sacred, respected, & revered, the word holy can also mean the total opposite. These spirits love playing the devil’s advocate & they use mind games; you may think they are actually demonic in nature.

They have access to what is referred to as ‘the akashic records’ – the data base of the living.

I imagine they were the spirits that inspired the writings we know as ‘The book of Revelations’

They would have spent time with the person we have come to know as ‘John of Patmos’

They can ‘state, claim, rein act’ any person who had ever lived. This includes the legend or myth ‘Jesus of Nazareth’.

They love to project dreams, ‘micro movies’ This is why I associate the ‘Holy Spirit’ with the ‘Holly wood spirit - they do a lot of acting’. This may only be coincidental but ‘Hollywood is located in the city of ‘Los Angeles’ meaning ‘the lost Angels’. I personally feel that they may be a bit lost at times hence the similarities of the words holy & holly. The Holy spirit is also found within the concept of the holy trinity – the prayer that acknowledges ‘The Father, the son & the holy spirit’. This collaboration was given life about 100-150 years A.D. I personally am not sure if they existed before the council of Nicaea. Or before the birth of Christ.

Therefore, God dose not write anything, people can & may be inspired by these individuals hence the name ‘The Holy Bible’. I also understand & know for a fact they use ‘many other methods’ to inspire a person.
 

Kfox

Well-Known Member
That’s my question:

Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?​
No. If I were inspired to write a book about Donald Trump based on things he did, you will not know if my book is in favor of Donald Trump, or against him; all you will know is that his actions were the inspiration of me writing the book.
 

gnostic

The Lost One
This may only be coincidental but ‘Hollywood is located in the city of ‘Los Angeles’ meaning ‘the lost Angels’.

Are you an American, thebenbenstone???

No. That’s not what Los Angeles means, @thebenbenstone, especially on the first part - “Los”.

You are basing the name of the city on English, but the whole of California (state) was originally part of Mexico, so the city’s name would be in Spanish, not in English.

So the “los” doesn’t mean “lost” or “loss” in English as you have claimed (your “lost angels”), it should be translated to “the”, so Los Angeles in Spanish should be translated into English as “The Angels”.

Since angeles is masculine plural for angel, then “the” in English would have to be in Spanish masculine plural, hence “los”.

You got the “Angeles” right, as English “Angels”, but the “Los”, wrong.

The irony is that I’m an Australian, not an American (do you remember my question at the start of my reply?). If you’re American, then you should have better knowledge of California history than me.

And no, I’m not expert in Spanish language, but I know of California’s history, and California used to be Spanish colony or Spanish territory, prior to it was ceded to America. Your mistake is assuming the names of the city on American English. San Francisco, San Diego, etc, are all cities of Spanish origins, as is Los Angeles.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
the city of ‘Los Angeles’ meaning ‘the lost Angels’.
Los Angeles means THE angels. Los is the masculine plural of The.

Los Angeles is actually short for El Pueblo de Nuestra Señora la Reina de los Ángeles (The City of Our Lady the Queen of the Angels). Most place names in California are Spanish, harkening back to the days when it was part of Spain, and later, of Mexico.
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
gnostic said:
That’s my question:

Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?

"Inspired by G-d" is neither authored by G-d, nor revealed by G-d, nor even written by G-d, please, right?

At certain occasions it could be even "inspired by the Devil", right? How to discern, please, right?

Regards
_________________
Searched:
In the case of Paul his seeing a vision, hasn't it every possibility that he was inspired by "the devil" instead of GD, right?

Regards
 

gnostic

The Lost One
In the case of Paul his seeing a vision, hasn't it every possibility that he was inspired by "the devil" instead of GD, right?

if you are going to ask me hypothetical question, then you will get a conjecture for answer.

So, the answer could be yes and it could be no.

perhaps, the vision had come from the devil, or it could have come from God. But it could also be that had no vision whatsoever, that he invented his story.

but the same could apply to Moses, Isaac, Jeremiah, Muhammad, Joseph Smith.

could the Gabriel in visitation to angel from god, or from the devil, or did Muhammad fabricate his story? I am thinking the last one be to most likely.

that’s the problem for every so-called prophets, saints, Messenger, apostles, etc, their stories are just that, unverified and unrealistic stories.
 

Eddi

Pantheist Christian
Premium Member
That’s my question:

Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?​
Depends what you mean by "inspired" but in answer to your question, no.

With regard to writing it could either mean feeling moved to write something by being inspired by God in a way that doesn't involve God doing anything to you or it could mean that God itself somehow worked upon you to make you want to write down some sentiment

Either of these is different to God himself writing something down

For something to count as being written by God I think the exact wording would have to be dictated to some human scribe, and possibly their pen moved by divine power
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
paarsurrey said:
Does “inspired by God” really means it was “written by God”?
In the case of Paul his seeing a vision, hasn't it every possibility that he was inspired by "the devil" instead of GD, right?
More likely he simply had a siezure.
It was a crafty move of Saul/Paul, so observing a vision cannot be a (psychic) seizure, right?
As I understand that Saul/Paul was a secret agent and or a spy of the Hellenist Rome working for the cause of Rome, right?

Regards
____________
"Q: Was Paul from Tarsus a Roman and Hellenized agent?
Answer:
Susan Krakowsky
M.A. in Near Eastern Languages, Ph.D. in Mass Communication
Maybe. It is clear that Paul told a transparent lie when he called himself “ in observance of the law a Pharisee,” which is a nonsense claim. You did not get to be a “Pharisee” by observing the law, or every Jewish child and every observant Jewish adult would have been a “Pharisee.” He was most likely never even a Jew one day in his life. (Although the Ebionites said he was Jewish, but by conversion).
So the book Operation Messiah, to which I believe you refer, may possibly have it right in calling Paul a Roman agent, although the authors themselves admit that we cannot know this about Paul for certain.
Paul never said he studied with Gamliel. That particular lie came from the Paul character in Acts, written long after Paul’s death. Having no apparent Hebrew or Aramaic language skills, Paul was unlikely to have grown up anywhere near any Jewish communities. And thus, with no traditional Jewish languages or educational experiences, he could not have been a “Pharisee.” Not could he have been a student of Gamliel. Not for even one day of his life. Not for one hour.
We do not know Paul’s city of origin (unless you believe Acts). Paul never said he was from Tarsus. Paul never mentions Tarsus. That claim comes from Acts and yet that particular claim is perfectly possible given Paul’s anonymity and lack of Jewish education.
Paul was a mysterious character, identified in only the most minimal ways. Christian scholars have speculated about him for millennia.
Paul does not even have a Hebrew or Aramaic name (unless you believe the fictions of Acts, written decades after his death), let alone any family identification. Most Jewish men having Hebrew or Aramaic names were identified with first name plus “bar” or “ben” (“son-of”) plus father’s name. Do we even know his father’s name?
Paul had a Latin name, no identified father, no identified city of origin, no similarities to any actual Pharisees, no apparent language skills in Hebrew or Aramaic, and no visible source of income other than what he sometimes collected from people he preached to. The guesses in Operation Messiah are as plausible as any other guesses and more likely than most."
 
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IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
paarsurrey said:
In the case of Paul his seeing a vision, hasn't it every possibility that he was inspired by "the devil" instead of GD, right?
When you word your "questions" this way (meaning you make a statement and then ask right?) it implies that there are people who actually believe it.
I just enquired, please, right?

Regards
___________
"a thorn in the flesh," and or visitation of Devil "
SAUL OF TARSUS - JewishEncyclopedia.com
 
Are you an American, thebenbenstone???
No i am definitely not an American.
The point i am trying to make is simply this... i have used an emphasized Los Angeles as the city of Lost Angels for mainly 2 reasons
1 : I likened & view the Holy Spirit as the Hollywood spirit because of the amount of micro movies they create and dispense into the
communities through the sleeping public.
2 : Hollywood is a production home & source for so many types of entertainment especially movies. That the city of Los
Angeles can be
classified as the city of Los
t Angels because of the nature of how we view the diversity of people that live there. From one extreme to
to another. Like the concept of 'fallen angels' which to me is simply another concept for the fall of
consciousness.
Here is a link that explains a little of how i am partially programmed .
 

exchemist

Veteran Member
Los Angeles means THE angels. Los is the masculine plural of The.

Los Angeles is actually short for El Pueblo de Nuestra Señora la Reina de los Ángeles (The City of Our Lady the Queen of the Angels). Most place names in California are Spanish, harkening back to the days when it was part of Spain, and later, of Mexico.
Gosh I never knew that. So it's really the city of Our Lady. How charming.
 
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