יְהוֺשׁוּעַ or יְהוֺשֻׁעַ ?

[Harel13]

No and yes. I never said that יְהוֺשׁוּעַ did not exist. Those two verses, that use יְהוֺשׁוּעַ, have no cases were that spelling is not used. Those two verses have no known variants from יְהוֺשׁוּעַ.

Your argument is that you agree with the OP?

 

[37818]

Your argument is that you agree with the OP?

The OP asked two questions:

What does it mean? And which is the original one?

Deuteronomy 3:21, ". . . And I commanded Joshua at that time, saying, Thine eyes have seen all that the LORD your God hath done unto these two kings: so shall the LORD do unto all the kingdoms whither thou passest. . . ."
I checked Biblica Hebraica there is no variant shown for Hebrew spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua.

Judges 2:7, ". . . And the people served the LORD all the days of Joshua, and all the days of the elders that outlived Joshua, who had seen all the great works of the LORD, that he did for Israel. . . ."
Again, here I checked Biblica Hebraica for the Hebrew spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua. No variant shown.

I have no reason to believe that Hebrew spelling is not the original inerrant spelling given by God in just those two places.

The unique spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua is used only twice. The two statements have something in common:
Deuteronomy 3:21, ". . . And I commanded Joshua at that time, saying, Thine eyes have seen all that the LORD your God hath done unto these two kings: so shall the LORD do unto all the kingdoms whither thou passest. . . ."

Judges 2:7, ". . . And the people served the LORD all the days of Joshua, and all the days of the elders that outlived Joshua, who had seen all the great works of the LORD, that he did for Israel. . . ."

The first is what God told Joshua. The second is in the obituary given for Joshua, Judges 2:7-8.

 

[Harel13]

The OP asked two questions:

I see. Well, thanks for clarifying.

 

[blü 2]

God spells in Hebrew???????

Happy Birthday!

 

[Lyndon]

thanks blu