Ubon
Member
Why site them, they are in there remember google is your friend.Could you please actually cite the verses.
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Why site them, they are in there remember google is your friend.Could you please actually cite the verses.
No, I find them because they are there. My whole life has been about trying to find ways that we can stop shunning others (I use the word deliberately...it has a very religious connotation.)I think it just means the article is primary about Christian beliefs.
"Are we to understand that God does not therefore, also care for Hindu, Muslim, Sikh or atheist gays?"
I think you are adding implications that are not there. The title does not actually exclude anyone from God's love. If it did that it would read something like "10 Reasons God [only] loves"
"Have we found yet another way to divide us all?"
Ever stop to consider that are finding ways to divide us, because you look for them?
Since I don't know you, what can I say? However, the Bible does rail against BOTH homosexuality and masturbation -- and if you are going to cite the Bible to suggest that one should never be practiced, then I think it quite reasonable that the other should never either. And if you ever have, well.....Are you refering to hypocrisy in the Bible or in me.
Why site them, they are in there remember google is your friend.
No, I find them because they are there. My whole life has been about trying to find ways that we can stop shunning others (I use the word deliberately...it has a very religious connotation.)
The list is more like an excuse to practice what God clearly condemns in his word. Since legal marriage can only scripturally take place between a man and a woman, any sexual activity outside of marriage is viewed as "fornication"....something that carried the death penalty in Israel. Since God was the author of The Law, and he does not change his standards to suit wayward humans, there is NO justification for SSM or any illicit sexual activity at all.
In Leviticus 18:22 it says.... “‘You are not to go to bed with a man as with a woman; it is an abomination." (Complete Jewish Bible) The term "go to bed" here is "shakab", which is used to denote sexual activity. If it was an "abomination to God back then...it is still an abomination now.
Here is some other info to ponder.....
"In the early post-Flood period, men such as Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and Joseph showed genuine concern for God’s way, his rule of action. (Ge 18:17-19; 39:7-9; Ex 3:6) Though God gave certain specific commands to faithful men (Gen 26:5), such as the law of circumcision, there is no record of his giving them a detailed law code to observe. (Compare Deut 5:1-3.) Nonetheless, they had not only the principles and precepts of the pre-Flood period to guide them but also additional principles and precepts to be drawn from his expressions and dealings with mankind in the post-Flood period.
Thus, although God had not given a detailed law code, as he later did with the Israelites, men were not without some means for determining right and wrong conduct. Idolatry, for example, had not yet been specifically condemned by a stated law. Nonetheless, as the apostle Paul shows, such practice was inexcusable inasmuch as God’s “invisible qualities are clearly seen from the world’s creation onward, because they are perceived by the things made, even his eternal power and Godship.” The venerating and rendering of “sacred service to the creation rather than the One who created” was against all reason. Those following such an empty-headed course would thereafter deviate into other unrighteous practices, such as homosexuality, changing “the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature.” Again, even though no specific law had been given, such practice was obviously contrary to the way of God the Creator, as the very structure of the male and female manifested. Man, having been originally made in God’s image, had intelligence sufficient to see these things. Hence, he was responsible before God if he went contrary to God’s way; he was sinning, ‘missing the mark,’ even without a specifically stated law to charge him with guilt.—Rom 1:18-27; compare Rom 5:13.
Some clergymen argue in favor of homosexuality, claiming that Jesus never spoke against it. But is that really so? Jesus Christ declared that God’s Word is truth. (John 17:17) That means that he endorsed God’s view of homosexuality as described at Leviticus 18:22, which reads: “You must not lie down with a male the same as you lie down with a woman. It is a detestable thing.” Moreover, Jesus listed fornication and adultery among the “wicked things [that] issue forth from within and defile a man.” (Mark 7:21-23) The Greek word for fornication is a broader term than that for adultery. It describes all forms of sexual relations outside lawful marriage, including homosexuality. (Jude 7) Jesus Christ also warned his followers not to tolerate any professed Christian teacher who minimizes the seriousness of fornication.—Revelation 1:1; 2:14, 20." (Excerpts WT publications)
I think you are really stretching some of those verses to say what you want them to say.
In John 17:14 he says "I have given them thy word; and the world hated them, because they are not of the world, even as I am not of the world."
"I have given them thy word"
That is the "word" being referred to in John 17:17. So it would be sanctify them by the word of of the New Testament, and not by the word of the Old Testament.
Seems like you are bending the Bible out of shape to get it to say what you want. I wonder what Jesus would think of that.
4. Condemning same-sex relationships is harmful to the LGBT community. Jesus taught in the Sermon on the Mount that good trees bear good fruit, while bad trees bear bad fruit. The church’s rejection of same-sex relationships has caused tremendous, needless suffering to the LGBT community—bad fruit. Those harmful consequences should make Christians open to reconsidering the church’s traditional teaching.
Does showing two men in the bed in the white sheets on TV channels bear bad fruit?
From the point of view of the Creator....he made the human body and has the right to dictate what can and can't be done with it lawfully. He does not not make those choices impossible, so we choose to either accept his laws or reject them. Bad fruit comes from disobedience. The harmful consequences come as a result of wayward humans dictating to God what a Christian should and shouldn't do. The scriptures are clear on this issue and anyone who says they are not is kidding themselves. You can be a practicing homosexual OR a Christian...but there is no way to be both. If a gay person chooses to serve God, then he or she must remain celibate.
No, not really.4. Condemning same-sex relationships is harmful to the LGBT community. Jesus taught in the Sermon on the Mount that good trees bear good fruit, while bad trees bear bad fruit. The church’s rejection of same-sex relationships has caused tremendous, needless suffering to the LGBT community—bad fruit. Those harmful consequences should make Christians open to reconsidering the church’s traditional teaching.
Does showing two men in the bed in the white sheets on TV channels bear bad fruit?
The thread was about homosexuality and christians, thats why i pointed out the bibles word on it.Since I don't know you, what can I say? However, the Bible does rail against BOTH homosexuality and masturbation -- and if you are going to cite the Bible to suggest that one should never be practiced, then I think it quite reasonable that the other should never either. And if you ever have, well.....
Perhaps it is you who does not understand what Jesus said?
He used the expression "it is written" to answer the devil back when he was tempted in the wilderness. He was referring to the OT or the Hebrew scriptures. The apostles too, regularly quoted from the OT because the NT was not yet written. When the apostle Paul said "all scripture is inspired of God", he was speaking about the OT. (Acts 17:2-3)
Jesus was sent exclusively to the Jews, and so were his apostles initially.....so if they hadn't taught from their own scripture, Christ's teachings would have had no real impact. (Matthew 10:5, 6; Acts 18:5)
Jesus also said that he did not come to "destroy the law" but to "fulfill it". All the principles still applied.
The law forbade illicit sexual activity of any kind, no matter if it was 'homo' or 'hetero' sex. Sex was strictly for marriage and the children born from such an arrangement had a family to grow up in....with both a mother and a father...the ones who brought them into the world. Scriptural marriage was instituted by God in Eden....no human has the right to alter that arrangement. You can't be a Christian and a practicing homosexual.....one excludes the other. Its a choice.
Seems like you are a bit short on Bible knowledge my friend.....Jesus would agree with me because he always agreed with scripture......his Father's word. (John 17:17)
May peace be with you,
Although I can understand how people feel sympathy for the LGBT community, what we may feel and believe is not always what God knows is best for us. I have friends that chose to change their homosexuality to heterosexuality, according to what they believed God wished us to do.
Jesus was Jewish and taught and followed the Torah. The Torah clearly prohibits LGBT behavior in no uncertain terms. So if you think Christianity is accepting of homosexual behavior, you should reconsider. Pay attention to NT verses that warn the same.
Here are OT and NT verses strongly prohibiting or indicating God's negative attitude toward LGBT behavior. Jesus would've been teaching those in the Torah (1st 5 Books of OT):
Torah (1st 5 books of OT) and other OT verses:
Leviticus 18:22: " Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."
Leviticus 20:13: "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them."
Deuteronomy 23:17: " There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel."
1 Kings 14:24: "And there were also sodomites in the land: and they did according to all the abominations of the nations which the LORD cast out before the children of Israel."
1 Kings 15:12: "And he took away the sodomites out of the land, and removed all the idols that his fathers had made."
1 Kings 22:46: "And the remnant of the sodomites, which remained in the days of his father Asa, he took out of the land."
2 Kings 23:7: "And he brake down the houses of the sodomites, that were by the house of the LORD, where the women wove hangings for the grove."
New Testament:
1 Romans 1:26-27: "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: 27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."
Corinthian 6:9: "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind."
1 Timothy 1:9:10: "Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;"
Remember that God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah for disobeying these commands.
Verse 22 is translated in the King James Version as: "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."
- If the verse is considered in isolation -- as it is most often done -- then a logical interpretation is that the verse condemns all sexual activity between two males.
- If Leviticus 18:22 is considered in the context of its surrounding chapters and previous verse, then one might expect that it refers to some forbidden idolatrous activity in a Pagan temple from which the ancient Israelites must separate themselves.
In transliterated Hebrew, the verse is written: "V'et zachar lo tishkav mishk'vey eeshah toeyvah hee."
- The first part of this verse is literally translated as "And with a male you shall not lay lyings of a woman" Many, probably most, theologians, Bible translations and biblical commentators agree that the verse is directed at men who engage in at least some form of anal sex with other men. But they do not agree on the full scope of the forbidden activities. For example:
- The Living Bible greatly widens the scope of the original Hebrew to include all homosexual acts by both men and women. They confuse the matter further by not differentiating between homosexual orientation and homosexual behavior. They render the first part of this verse as: "Homosexuality is absolutely forbidden."
- On the other hand, many religious liberals have interpreted the beginning of this verse as referring only to sexual activities between two males during a Pagan temple ritual. If there were a liberal translation of the Bible, it might say "Ritual anal sex between two men in a Pagan temple is forbidden."
You can but religions frown upon it.why can't we have a relationship with other men?
That's probably the main thread where this was discussed by a lot of people.