Smoke
Done here.
A lot of untrue things are "obvious" to you.You obviously never read Thomas.
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A lot of untrue things are "obvious" to you.You obviously never read Thomas.
I'd describe it more as "paradoxical" or "inherently contradictory".You know you're the first prerson that's mentioned that. Kinda counter-intuitive don't you think?
The theorem isn't unknowable, but I agree that you don't seem to know what it is.Because I know I'll never learn French, doesn't mean I know French. Because I know Godel's Theorem's truth of falsity is Unknowable doesn't mean I know what it is.
How do you know that whatever makes the universe work is the "unknowable" of Godel's incompleteness theorem?Quick summary, science and reason can never make the Universe work, yet it works. That Great Unknowble that makes it work is defined as God, like you say t = time. God is Unknowable and makes the Universe work.
Godel's Incompleteness Theorem is true, AFAICT.The theorem isn't unknowable
Ok, is it true or false? Spit it out.
I did read your first post. I don't think those quotes say what you think they do.How do you know that whatever makes the universe work is the "unknowable" of Godel's incompleteness theorem?
Did you even read post 1? The famous scientists/mathematicians in their peer reviewed papers say the Universe is Eternally Unknowable to Science, because of Godel. In particular they did the math for the Quantum Theory.
What do you think "the Universe is still Unknowable" actually means? Large parts of the universe are known to us in the normal way, and even more parts will become known in future. Godel's point was that all knowledge must have some assumptions of unknown things at its foundation. It certainly doesn't mean we can't try to find out all we can about the original cause of the universe (if one exists); it just means that mathematical and logical concepts, and therefore all knowledge, are contingent on things we can't rigorously prove.It doesn't say what will be unknowable, only that in every mathematical system, there will be some things we have to assume axiomatically. This doesn't mean that the particular thing that you want to be unknowable is necessarily so.
False, the famous scientists/mathematicians in post 1 proved that even if you take an infinite number of things on pure faith, even with an infinite number of axioms, the Universe is still Unknowable. Everyone knows it's unknowable if there's only a finite number of things taken on pure faith, a finite number of axioms.
You need to familiarize yourself with what exactly a formal logical system is.
We're probably getting a bit off topic on this point. I think you and I have very different understandings of Goedel's Incompleteness Theorem, Quantum Mechanics, and math. The Incompleteness Theorem just says that given a consistent logical system, there exists one statement which is true within the system, but which cannot be proven within it. Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle showed that you cannot know both the position and momentum of a particle beyond a certain precision, this precision is not an artifact of your measuring device, but rather a natural limit of the universe. Based on this, I agree with you that science can only know things in an aproximate way, but it is not correct to say that this is, as you state it, an "occasionally false way". So we don't argue over differing definitions, where do you get your understanding of math? I understand a theory in math to be a set of axioms (statements made without proof) and theorems (statements ultimately derived from axioms).Science explains a lot.
All in an approximate, occasionally false way. The Uncertainty Principle alone demonstrates that.
It means it explains some things in a rough approximate way, and some things it can never ever explain at all, not because it hasn't got to them yet, it will never be able to get to them, forever and ever.
I don't get my understanding of math from Wikipedia. Ain't no theories in axiomatic systems. All math is axiomatic systems.
What are you talking about? I never said that I worshiped science.
I don't think I accused you of it.
What am I to infer from the above statement then?Where were you a little while ago. It was something you put on the altar of truth and worship.
You are free to believe this, but these statements are neither proven nor implied by the Incompleteness Theorem or Quantum Mechanics. Your proof hinges on this one statement:That which we can never ever know, that makes the Universe Work, is defined as God. Gotta stress it's not a god of the gaps or they'll harp on that, and need to point out making the Universe work, or they'll claim you never said that.
God is the Great Unknowable that makes the Universe work. He makes the knowable and unknowable work. Other than that, he is Unknowable. Is Godel's Theorem God more than a tree in the forest? It's Unknowable.
How are words like "If we choose to define" in any way proof? Imagine a courtroom where the defendant's lawyer finishes up his case by telling the judge, "There, I have conclusively proven the defendants innocence. Now if we choose to define God as partly being that innocence, then we have also proved that God exists!" How could anyone unashamedly make such a claim and call it proof?If we choose to define the Father as partly being that Unknowable, we have proved the Father with formal math.
Godel's First Incompleteness Theorem basically amounts to saying that when you break down a proof to its most fundamental component parts, any formal proof will have to be based on something that has to be accepted axiomatically... i.e. taken as true without being proven so. It doesn't say what you have to accept as an axiom, only that you have to accept something as one.Godel's Theorem is like saying
"This sentence is a lie"
in math.
Is is true or false?
We're probably getting a bit off topic on this point. I think you and I have very different understandings of Goedel's Incompleteness Theorem, Quantum Mechanics, and math. The Incompleteness Theorem just says that given a consistent logical system, there exists one statement which is true within the system, but which cannot be proven within it. .
Godel's First Incompleteness Theorem basically amounts to saying that when you break down a proof to its most fundamental component parts, any formal proof will have to be based on something that has to be accepted axiomatically... i.e. taken as true without being proven so. It doesn't say what you have to accept as an axiom, only that you have to accept something as one.
Thanks! I try my best to understand both sides of the argument and listen to what the person on the other side of the connection is trying to say. I find it's way too easy to misconstrue what other peoples intentions are.Hi Fortunato,
When I said,
"Where were you a little while ago. It was something you put on the altar of truth and worship."
I was saying others worship science, and it was a welcome change to talk to someone that can do the science that doesn't worship it.
Rick
The fact that at least some of what we now accept axiomatically can never, ever be proven true was big news, as were the facts that all knowledge is contingent on things we can't ever objectively prove, and that human knowledge has intrinsic limits.That axiomatic systems need axioms wasn't big news in 1931.
Kurt, maybe you're misunderstanding what I'm trying to say. I'm not arguing about whether or not Godel's Incompleteness Theorem is true (I believe it's been conclusively proven that it is true). What I was describing was what his theorem actually states, which is:Oh no, Godel's Incompleteness Theorem IS proved, the proof is Godel's Proof.
And it's no more true than the statement, "This sentence is a lie." If it's true, it's false, and therefore not true. That would be the inconsistant option, not the incomplete one.
The fact that at least some of what we now accept axiomatically can never, ever be proven true was big news, as were the facts that all knowledge is contingent on things we can't ever objectively prove, and that human knowledge has intrinsic limits.
Kurt, maybe you're misunderstanding what I'm trying to say. I'm not arguing about whether or not Godel's Incompleteness Theorem is true (I believe it's been conclusively proven that it is true). What I was describing was what his theorem actually states, which is:
For any consistent (i.e. doesn't allow any non-contradictory statements) and sufficiently powerful system (i.e. can prove simple arithmetical statements), there exists at least one statement which is true within the system, but which cannot be proven within that system.
In lay-mans terms, there are mathematical theorems which are true but unprovable.