Gunfingers said:
Not without good reason. Got any? If it's because of
"(2) the unorganized militia, which consists of the members of the militia who are not members of the National Guard or the Naval Militia."
I can only say, so what? The Second Amendment doesn't address unorganized militias, but
well regulated ones. Simply recognizing the forms (classes) of militias does not imbue their existence with any legal standing.
If it's because of
The militia of the United States consists of all able-bodied males at least 17 years of age and...under 45 years of age
I'm in the militia, you're in the militia, your dad, uncles, brothers, and male cousins are all in the unorganized militia assuming that they're citizens within the correct age range.
Sorry to say, my dad is over 45, and I don't belong to the National guard. So I suggest you reread it yourself, all the way through to where it says "
who are members of the National Guard."
Revoltingest said:
That really doesn't relate to the 2nd Amendment, which is about the rights of citizens to bear arms, not the government.
Of course it doesn't. My remark was only in reply to the use of "militia" as illustrated in Gunfinger's link.
Your probability calculation is off. Looking at history:
# of times the Earth came to an end: Zero
# of times citizens needed arms: Plenty
Plenty > Zero
Good one. But the fact remains that because of the change in our society, one whose security is well provided for by our armed forces, the "plenty" is no longer relevant. The past is not necessarily binding on or even relevant to the present or the future.
I'd say they did meet the criterion, ie, that our gov't may not infringe upon that right.
Think they were "well regulated" I rather doubt it. They may have been organized, even
well organized, but I never saw any evidence of regulation, much less "
well regulated."
(IMO, the 2nd half of the 2nd Amendment is not a dependent clause, but rather a reason. Even if the reason were eliminated, the 1st half remains.)
I think it does. The first clause establishes reason for the second. Without it the second clause has no reason for existence. It IS dependent on the first. It's no different than saying, "In order to move about, the right of the people to own a horse shall not be infringed. A lot of people own a horse, but because moving about is no longer dependent on having a horse there is no reason for such guarantee.