rosends
Well-Known Member
my maternal grand mother was a Jew
um...
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my maternal grand mother was a Jew
It is true that the Jewish leaders condemned and crusified Christ a fellow Jew for Blasphemy and claiming to be King of the Jews.
This is not, in fact, the case.
First of all, there are only four methods of execution permissible under Jewish law, and crucifixion is not among them.
Second of all, it is incredibly difficult to get a death sentence out of a legitimate Sanhedrin: the burden of proof is vast, far far beyond the burden of proof in any modern nation.
Third of all, at that time, the legitimate Sanhedrin was not executing people, for various reasons, among them being the requirement imposed on us to turn over those sentenced to death to the Romans for execution, who would certainly use methods not permitted to us.
Fourth, the Christian scriptures present an account of a sanhedrin being called by the High Priest, Yosef bar Kayafa (or bar Kufai, Hellenized to Caiaphas): not only did the High Priest have no authority to convene a sanhedrin, but bar Kayafa was part of the corrupted Sadducee element in the priesthood, meaning he had even less authority to convene a sanhedrin. Any "court" he convened would have been completely illegitimate under Jewish law.
Finally, no legitimate Sanhedrin would have wasted its time on Jesus. There were hundreds of guys running around ancient Israel claiming to be the messiah. It would have been an endless parade of trials, and a bloodbath, if they had actually tried and executed them all. There was nothing special about Jesus.
Yes the court he called was totally illegal. It was the middle of the night, the witnesses were known to be false, and the high priest cast his vote prior to anyone else. The accounts can be reviewed at Mt 26:57-68, Mr 15:53-65, and Lu 22:66-71. A pre-trial showing to the father-in-law of the high priest is found at John 18:12-14,19-24.
Yes, indeed. I've heard it cited often that what we are asked to believe the Sanhedrin did to Y'shua is beyond belief because it would have been so contrary to their practices. But here's something more incredible, Herodians, Zealots, Pharisees, other sects and the Romans all conspiring together to kill Y'shua. But it is there. The scriptures also record that those present wishing to speak out held their tongues because of great fear.
One also needs to remember that the gospels were written decades after the fact, which was more than enough time to reflect the fact that the relationship between "the Way" and Jews that didn't convert to go "south", if you know what I mean. Thus, demonizing "the Jews" would be pretty much expected, and this is what we see happening in the gospels, especially John's, and also some of the epistles.
Also, and Levite can correct me on this if I happen to be wrong, I've read that the Sanhedrin could not meet as a group during Passover, but if there was an emergency, one of those on the Sanhedrin could make a decision that later could be reviewed after Passover was finished. I read this somewhere, but can't remember where, nor do I know if this is correct.
One also needs to remember that the gospels were written decades after the fact, which was more than enough time to reflect the fact that the relationship between "the Way" and Jews that didn't convert to go "south", if you know what I mean. Thus, demonizing "the Jews" would be pretty much expected, and this is what we see happening in the gospels, especially John's, and also some of the epistles.
Also, and Levite can correct me on this if I happen to be wrong, I've read that the Sanhedrin could not meet as a group during Passover, but if there was an emergency, one of those on the Sanhedrin could make a decision that later could be reviewed after Passover was finished. I read this somewhere, but can't remember where, nor do I know if this is correct.
I've read the NT over 20 times and in multiple versions. Demonizing the Jews is not there in context, ever--if it was, I couldn't be a believer. And if it was, again, the 1st century adherents, wouldn't be.
Define um... pleaseum...
This is not, in fact, the case.
First of all, there are only four methods of execution permissible under Jewish law, and crucifixion is not among them.
Second of all, it is incredibly difficult to get a death sentence out of a legitimate Sanhedrin: the burden of proof is vast, far far beyond the burden of proof in any modern nation.
Third of all, at that time, the legitimate Sanhedrin was not executing people, for various reasons, among them being the requirement imposed on us to turn over those sentenced to death to the Romans for execution, who would certainly use methods not permitted to us.
Fourth, the Christian scriptures present an account of a sanhedrin being called by the High Priest, Yosef bar Kayafa (or bar Kufai, Hellenized to Caiaphas): not only did the High Priest have no authority to convene a sanhedrin, but bar Kayafa was part of the corrupted Sadducee element in the priesthood, meaning he had even less authority to convene a sanhedrin. Any "court" he convened would have been completely illegitimate under Jewish law.
Finally, no legitimate Sanhedrin would have wasted its time on Jesus. There were hundreds of guys running around ancient Israel claiming to be the messiah. It would have been an endless parade of trials, and a bloodbath, if they had actually tried and executed them all. There was nothing special about Jesus.
"Since it was the day of Preparation, so that the bodies would not remain on the torture stakes on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath day was a great one), the Jews asked Pilate to have the legs broken and the bodies taken away." - John 19:31
Nisan 15th was the beginning of the Festival of Unleavened Bread.
I suppose they considered getting rid of Jesus an emergency, if it is correct that the Sanhedrin avoided Passover meetings.
It would seem to be hard to define at this distance who sentenced and crucified Jesus. The Romans had no reason to do so, some Jewish leaders certainly did.
That it was done unlawfully, does not make the situation any better or justify their action. It might have been done under the authority of Rome as the Bible suggests, and a rabble might have been involved. But the instigators were almost certainly Jews. Who had sufficient authority to bring the case forward.
It is disingenuous to suggest otherwise. To suggest it was done illegally makes the matter even worse.
Um=according to Jewish law, you just said "I am Jewish."Define um... please
However, this procedure was ignored in the case of Jesus’ trial.
So Jewish tradition means "no historical evidence" but gospel quotes equal history? I think not.According to Jewish tradition the Sanhedrin was set up by Moses (Nu 11:16-25) and reorganized by Ezra immediately after the return from the exile. But there is no historical evidence to support the idea that 70 older men sat as a single court to hear cases in those early times. Rather, the Sanhedrin seems to have come into existence during the time of Greek rule in Palestine. In the time of Jesus’ earthly ministry the Roman government allowed the Sanhedrin a great measure of independence, granting it civil and administrative authority. It had officers at its disposal as well as the power of arrest and imprisonment. (Mt 26:47; Ac 4:1-3; 9:1, 2) Its religious authority was recognized even among the Jews of the Dispersion. (See Ac 9:1, 2.) However, under the Roman rule the Sanhedrin in time evidently lost the legal authority to execute the death penalty, unless they got the permission of the Roman governor (procurator). (Joh 18:31) After the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 C.E., the Sanhedrin was abolished.