What does that mean? What is "like a principle of objective morality," and does the Golden Rule differ?The Golden Rule is a rule of thumb. It is nothing like a principle of objective morality.
Have you ever done any reading in ethics? I find the peculiar language and ideas grating. The meta-ethical theses are moral realism, nihilism and relativism. Moral realism posits the existence of objective moral facts. That is it moral to treat others as one wishes to be treated (ceteris paribus) is an objective moral fact.
[/quote]One of the justifications for the USA Christian slavers was that a lifetime of hard labor was a fair exchange for Christianization. [/quote]And you're saying that you see nothing wrong with that?
How about answering the other questions I asked above?
So you would say that slavery in the 18th and 19th centuries in the US was not truly immoral--some people did and some people didn't have those values about its wrongfulness.
In ancient Rome, boys (by the thousands, according to one commentator) born to slaves and the lower classes were taken and castrated in order to be used as sex toys. You would say that there is nothing really, truly wrong with that?
In ancient Rome, boys (by the thousands, according to one commentator) born to slaves and the lower classes were taken and castrated in order to be used as sex toys. You would say that there is nothing really, truly wrong with that?
The anti-realist answers to such questions demonstrate the social and political regressiveness of moral anti-realism.
Thank God there are moral realists who are able to recognize moral wrongs. That's how society progresses.