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Are you obligated to believe the entirety of the bible?

Lindsey-Loo

Steel Magnolia
So, then, you do believe that the original text of Mark included the description of Jesus' resurrection? Why?

Of course, it basically matches the descriptions of his resurrection in the other gospels.


Not really; the reason you gave seems pretty circular. Why are you a Protestant?

I'm nondenominational (classified by most as part of the Protestants) because I want to follow only what is in the Bible, not anything more, and not anything less. I don't want to offend anyone, but I believe Catholics and Orthodoxies include things in their worship and doctrine that are not biblically ordained. All denominations, really.
 

Smoke

Done here.
I suppose I'm daft and/or I missed something. Can you explain?

doppelgänger;1381487 said:
In your last post before this one, you provided a perfectly timely example of what Bill was referring to in his post about "hunches" that thoughts obtained while looking at a Bible are from "God."
Exactly, Dopp.

The original 66 books of the Bible is the Bible.
It is, of course, absolute nonsense to speak of "the original 66 books of the Bible." The canon of the New Testament was a matter of dispute well into the fifth century, and the Orthodox Church, though it accepts the Apocalypse (Revelation) as scripture, doesn't appoint it to be read in church to this day. The New Testament canon was disputed anew by Martin Luther, who rejected Hebrews, James, Jude, and the Apocalypse, though in the end he failed to convince even his own followers.

There really was no definitive Christian canon of the Old Testament before the Reformation. The Roman Catholic Canon was settled in the 16th century, the Protestant canon in the 16th and 17th, and the Eastern Orthodox canon in the 17th. (I don't think there was ever any definitive settling of the canon of the Oriental Orthodox Churches. The Coptic Church accepts the same canon as the Greek Orthodox, but the Ethiopian Church accepts additional books, and if I remember correctly there's also some difference between the Syriac canon and the Coptic canon.)

Though the Catholic church does include the Apocrypha with the Bible, they do not consider it holy scripture, but as books to be learned from.

That's not correct. The Roman Catholic Church does in fact accept what it calls the Deuterocanonical (not apocryphal) books as holy scripture. This was affirmed at the Council of Trent after Protestants had begun removing those books from their bibles.

As for the Greek Orthodox and all them, I do not know enough about them o comment.
In this as in most other areas, the Orthodox position is more subtle and less settled. All Orthodox Churches accept the Septuagint canon, but there are some differences, notably in the books of Esdras. The Greek Bible contains two books of Esdras, which are equivalent to Ezra, Nehemiah, and 1 Esdras in the KJV. (Ezra and Nehemiah are one book in the Greek.) The Slavonic Bible contains three books of Esdras, which are equivalent to Ezra, Nehemiah, 1 Esdras and most of 2 Esdras in the KJV. (I'm aware that the KJV is almost always printed without the so-called Apocrypha, but it originally included those books.) The Greek Bible also includes 4 Maccabees as an appendix, though the book is not considered canonical.

Briefly, the Orthodox Church accepts all the books the Roman Catholic Church accepts, but makes the Epistle of Jeremiah a separate book, instead of the 6th chapter of Baruch. In addition, the Orthodox Church accepts several books not accepted as canonical by the Roman Catholic Church:

1) The book called 1 Esdras in the Septuagint and the KJV; it's called 2 Esdras in the Slavonic and 3 Esdras in the Vulgate.

2) 3 Maccabees

3) The Prayer of Mannases

4) The 151st Psalm (as part of the Psalter, not as a separate book)

5) The Book of Odes (a compilation made from various other canonical scriptures)

The books that are called Ezra and Nehemiah in the KJV and 1 and 2 Esdras in the Vulgate are one book in the Greek, called 2 Esdras. In the Slavonic they are two books called 1 Esdras and Nehemiah.

In addition to these books, the Slavonic Bible also includes 3 Esdras, which is the same as chapters three to fourteen of the book that is called 2 Esdras in the KJV and 4 Esdras in the Vulgate.

When I said original, I meant the 66 books that four ecumenical councils decreed as the Word of God.
That's a very mistaken view.

The legend that the First Ecumenical Council settled the canon of scripture is just that: a legend. There's no reliable evidence of any such thing, and neither the canons nor any known acts of the council list the books of scripture. The Second, Third, and Fourth Ecumenical Councils likewise didn't list the books of scripture.

However, the Fourth Ecumenical Council did confirm "the canons promulgated by the Holy Fathers, in each and every council down to the present time." This has been construed as a confirmation of the canons of the Council of Carthage, and the Sixth and Seventh Ecumenical Councils (which you don't seem to accept) made that view explicit.

The Old Testament Canon adopted at Carthage doesn't correspond to any modern canon. It is:

Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy,
Joshua the Son of Nun,
Judges,
4 Books of Reigns (corresponding to 1 & 2 Samuel and 1 & 2 Kings in the KJV),
2 Books of Paralipomena (corresponding to 1 & 2 Chronicles in the KJV),
Job,
The Psalter,
4 Books of Solomon (I take this to mean Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, the Song of Songs, and the Wisdom of Solomon),
12 Books of the Prophets,
Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Daniel,
Tobit, Judith, Esther, and
2 Books of Esdras
 
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Smoke

Done here.
I don't want to offend anyone, but I believe Catholics and Orthodoxies include things in their worship and doctrine that are not biblically ordained. All denominations, really.
That's not at all offensive. Neither Church adheres to the doctrine of sola scriptura, since sola scriptura is not just nonsense from a historical view (since the Church pre-dated and developed the canon), but also disproves itself (since the doctrine isn't found in scripture).
 

Draka

Wonder Woman
I don't know if your really interested in knowing why...but,
we are not under obligation to do anything.
When a person confesses Jesus Christ as Lord and receives hims as savior and lord he becomes spiritually born again and in right standing with God.
It's at this poijnt that God begins to reveal himself to the christian through the word, events and other people.
God then places his spirit in the man and they become a new creation and take on a new nature. It is a supernatural occurrence that brings the word of God into a new light.
The christian does not automatically know that everything in the word is truth, but as the christian matures in their faith and relationship to God the Holy Spirit brings truth to the word of God.

..i don't know if you understand what I'm saying but


This sounds backwards to me. This is something I just don't follow. How can one first profess belief in Jesus Christ as lord and THEN be revealed god through "the word"? If it takes faith first to believe in the bible then where did the knowledge of the faith come from if not first from the bible? How can one profess to be Christian if the only way to know the "truth" is to be a Christian that has "matured" enough to receive the "truth"? It's circular at best.



How does one accept that Jesus Christ is the son of this god if they first don't put blind faith in a book which may or may not be true? One can say it is true because it is the "word of god" but what says it is the "word of god"? ...the book itself. Again, that is circular reasoning.
 
How can you possibly know the degree of precision with which the Bible was copied and translated without having the original maniscripts?

How do LDS know if the Book of Mormon was "translated" correctly? Have you seen the original manuscripts?

The translations we have may be very similar to the oldest copies of the original manuscripts we have, but when the oldest copies we have date to several hundred years after the originals were written, it's really impossible to say how accurate they are.

Why is it impossible? Is it impossible because your religion teaches that it is impossible? Or is it possible that all scripture is given by inspiration from God and that God knows every language and would therefore want accurate translations and would oversee the work of translation?

Why did He allow some of Paul's and the other Apostles' epistles to be lost then?

Can you tell us what is missing? Is it "many plain and precious things?" (Book of Mormon, 1 Nephi 13:26). I'm curious because one would have to believe that God isn't interested in preserving His word for people of all nations if one believes that He would allow men to pervert the Bible.

Jesus said that the gates of hell would not prevail against His Church. If the Bible doesn't contain the teachings of Christ's Church, then Christ would have been a liar and the gates of hell would have been victorious. "And when he putteth forth his own sheep, he goeth before them, and the sheep follow him: for they know his voice." (John 10:4)

Are the scriptures reliable only if we have the original manuscripts? Were the scriptures of the early church reliable?

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" (2 Timothy 3:16)

"These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so." (Acts 17:11)

I just ran across another post of yours:
I'd say that there is probably more missing material than there are significant errors in that which has been preserved.

Do you get your information pertaining to missing material from the Book of Mormon, 1 Nephi 13:26? Do you have any proof that God allowed men to remove parts of the Bible?
 
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This sounds backwards to me. This is something I just don't follow. How can one first profess belief in Jesus Christ as lord and THEN be revealed god through "the word"? If it takes faith first to believe in the bible then where did the knowledge of the faith come from if not first from the bible? How can one profess to be Christian if the only way to know the "truth" is to be a Christian that has "matured" enough to receive the "truth"? It's circular at best.

How does one accept that Jesus Christ is the son of this god if they first don't put blind faith in a book which may or may not be true? One can say it is true because it is the "word of god" but what says it is the "word of god"? ...the book itself. Again, that is circular reasoning.

I agree with you that one can't believe simply by speaking the right words. One does not come to Christ without being given the gift of faith. It is God who brings the person to Christ and immediately or soon afterwards the person tells others of his faith.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
Please don't take this thread off-topic. There are enough other places to discuss the Book of Mormon. You don't have to derail this thread. Several of your questions have already been answered in this thread. I'll direct you to those answers. A couple of them pertain to the OP. I'll do my best to offer my perspective on them. Ask the other questions elsewhere.

ἀλήθεια;1382048 said:
Why is it impossible? Is it impossible because your religion teaches that it is impossible? Or is it possible that all scripture is given by inspiration from God and that God knows every language and would therefore want accurate translations and would oversee the work of translation?
It's impossible because human beings are involved, and human beings are fallible. I'm sure God would have wanted accurate translations, but He would also have wanted all Christians to be united in their faith. Why did He allow Christianity to be splintered into over 30,000 different denominations? God has given us our free agency and because we are imperfect, our works are also imperfect. That includes the transcription and translation of His word.

Can you tell us what is missing? Is it "many plain and precious things?" (Book of Mormon, 1 Nephi 13:26). I'm curious because one would have to believe that God isn't interested in preserving His word for people of all nations if one believes that He would allow men to pervert the Bible.
See posts 69, 76 and 82. I can expound on post 69, if you'd like, but it should answer your question fairly well. How many books are in your Bible, by the way?

Jesus said that the gates of hell would not prevail against His Church. If the Bible doesn't contain the teachings of Christ's Church, then Christ would have been a liar and the gates of hell would have been victorious. "And when he putteth forth his own sheep, he goeth before them, and the sheep follow him: for they know his voice." (John 10:4)
Do you know what "the gates of hell" meant to Christ's audience? The gates of hell never have prevailed against His Church, no will they.

Are the scriptures reliable only if we have the original manuscripts?
Of course not. But we can verify their reliability much more easily if we aren't just working with copies of copies of copies.

Were the scriptures of the early church reliable?
I believe they were God's word as they came from the pens of the original writers.

Do you get your information pertaining to missing material from the Book of Mormon, 1 Nephi 13:26? Do you have any proof that God allowed men to remove parts of the Bible?
No, I don't get it from the Book of Mormon. Again, this is addressed in other posts, not only by me but by others who are not members of my Church.
 
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9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
That's not correct. The Roman Catholic Church does in fact accept what it calls the Deuterocanonical (not apocryphal) books as holy scripture. This was affirmed at the Council of Trent after Protestants had begun removing those books from their bibles.
The Roman Catholic Church does consider the deuterocanonical books to be Scripture, but it does include three books of Apocrypha (Prayer of Manasses, 3 Esdras and 4 Esdras) for which their status as Holy Scripture is considered doubtful.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
ἀλήθεια;1382048 said:
Are the scriptures reliable only if we have the original manuscripts? Were the scriptures of the early church reliable?

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" (2 Timothy 3:16)

"These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so." (Acts 17:11)
Do you think these verses refer to the Bible as you have it today? Do they include the books in which the verses appear? Do they include books that didn't yet exist when these verses were written?

What do you think the authors of these verses mean when they say "scripture"?
 
Please don't take this thread off-topic. There are enough other places to discuss the Book of Mormon. You don't have to derail this thread. Several of your questions have already been answered in this thread. I'll direct you to those answers. A couple of them pertain to the OP. I'll do my best to offer my perspective on them. Ask the other questions elsewhere.
It's impossible because human beings are involved, and human beings are fallible.
Human beings were fallible when the original manuscripts were written. God is infallible.
"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" (2 Timothy 3:16)
I'm sure God would have wanted accurate translations, but He would also have wanted all Christians to be united in their faith.
Are you asking why God allows sin? It is so He may show His mercy.
Why did He allow Christianity to be splintered into over 30,000 different denominations? God has given us our free agency and because we are imperfect, our works are also imperfect. That includes the transcription and translation of His word.
Imperfect men wrote the original documents. Does that somehow taint the original documents?

Why does God allow many denominations as well as Buddhism, Taoism, Islam and many other religions? All men are under the power of Satan before they are brought to Christ. Were they not, there would be no need for a Savior.

Do you know what "the gates of hell" meant to Christ's audience? The gates of hell never have prevailed against His Church, no will they.
His sheep are the Church for whom He gave His life. Would He lead them astray with imperect, uninspired scripture that has been tampered with by men? What made the Bereans more noble than those in Thessalonica?
These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so. (Acts 17:11)
The Bible is the measuring stick against which we check the accuracy of the message being delivered.
Thy word have I hid in mine heart, that I might not sin against thee. (Psalm 119:11)
Of course not. But we can verify their reliability much more easily if we aren't just working with copies of copies of copies.
Is this how we measure the reliabilty of all writings? If that is how you verify the Word of God, what do you do with the Book of Mormon? Where are its "original manuscripts?" You see, I find it a bit disingenuous to judge one canon of scripture by one method and another so-called canon by a completely different method.
I believe they were God's word as they came from the pens of the original writers.
No, I don't get it from the Book of Mormon. Again, this is addressed in other posts, not only by me but by others who are not members of my Church.
Were the original writers, as you call them, fallible or infallible?
 
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Do you think these verses refer to the Bible as you have it today? Do they include the books in which the verses appear? Do they include books that didn't yet exist when these verses were written?

What do you think the authors of these verses mean when they say "scripture"?

All scripture is God-breathed. Therefore they were looking at the scripture that had been revealed to them thus far.

"And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus." (2 Timothy 3:15)

"Thy word have I hid in mine heart, that I might not sin against thee." (Psalm 119:11)
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
ἀλήθεια;1382181 said:
All scripture is God-breathed. Therefore they were looking at the scripture that had been revealed to them thus far.
... that they considered as scripture.

I have a sneaking suspicion that when the word "scripture" appears in the New Testament, we'd get something close to the author's original meaning if we mentally substituted it with "Torah", "Septuagint" or something along those lines.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
ἀλήθεια;1382175 said:
Human beings were fallible when the original manuscripts were written. God is infallible.
Yes, they were. And it's possible they made mistakes, or interpreted God's words differently than He meant them. The chances for error increase each time a document is hand-copied, and it increases even more with each subsequent translation.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" (2 Timothy 3:16)
I have no argument with this.

Are you asking why God allows sin?
No.

Imperfect men wrote the original documents. Does that somehow taint the original documents?
To some degree, probably, but not significantly so.

Why does God allow many denominations as well as Buddhism, Taoism, Islam and many other religions? All men are under the power of Satan before they are brought to Christ. Were they not, there would be no need for a Savior.
Let's leave the non-Christian religions out of the discussion for the time being. There are thousands of Christian denominations out there and hundreds of different translations of the holy scriptures. You're insisting that God would make sure the Bible contained everything He wanted us to know and that it is absolutely free from error. Then why do the various translations differ? And why do the thousands of different denominations of Christianity interpret the scriptures differently?

His sheep are the Church for whom He gave His life. Would He lead them astray with imperect, uninspired scripture that has been tampered with by men?
Men killed the prophets and apostles He sent. Why didn't He stop this from happening? Jesus didn't lead anybody astray, but He has always allowed men to mess up, and mess up they have.

The Bible is the measuring stick against which we check the accuracy of the message being delivered.
I agree. You probably don't realize how much I love the Bible.

Is this how we measure the reliabilty of all writings? If that is how you verify the Word of God, what do you do with the Book of Mormon? Where are its "original manuscripts?" You see, I find it a bit disingenuous to judge one canon of scripture by one method and another so-called canon by a completely different method.
Personally, I measure the reliability of all scripture by what the Holy Ghost tells me is true. I don't measure the Bible any differently than I measure the Book of Mormon. If I were to read the Qur'an, I'd measure it the same way. I'm not sure if you're really not understanding what I'm saying or if you're just trying to be difficult. All I have said is that the greater the degree to which fallible men are involved, the greater the chance there is for error. That shouldn't be that difficult to understand. And I don't appreciate being called disingenuous by someone who doesn't even know me at all. Would you?

Were the original writers, as you call them, fallible or infallible?
They were fallible. The were God's prophets but the only infallible person who has ever lived is Jesus Christ, in my opinion.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
I have a sneaking suspicion that when the word "scripture" appears in the New Testament, we'd get something close to the author's original meaning if we mentally substituted it with "Torah", "Septuagint" or something along those lines.
Thanks for pointing that out, even though it's pretty much a no-brainer.
 
Yes, they were. And it's possible they made mistakes, or interpreted God's words differently than He meant them. The chances for error increase each time a document is hand-copied, and it increases even more with each subsequent translation.

If scripture actually is God-breathed as the Bible claims, it is not posssible that men made mistakes.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (2 Tim. 3:16-17)


"Are you asking why God allows sin?"

No.

Why does God allow some people to be Methodists, some Catholics, some LDS, some FLDS? Why does Satan tempt people to twist what God says is truth? Walking in darkness is a result of the fall. Does a person who is brought to Christ immediately have a perfect knowledge of God's word?

"But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen." (2 Peter 3:18)

Let's leave the non-Christian religions out of the discussion for the time being. There are thousands of Christian denominations out there and hundreds of different translations of the holy scriptures.

Is the New World Translation a translation? Is the Inspired Version(JST) a translation? No, neither of these were taken from early manuscripts. What are the translations that you are referring to and how are they significantly different from one another?

You're insisting that God would make sure the Bible contained everything He wanted us to know and that it is absolutely free from error. Then why do the various translations differ? And why do the thousands of different denominations of Christianity interpret the scriptures differently?

Is the FLDS church a denomination of Mormonism or of Christianity, IYO?

Men killed the prophets and apostles He sent. Why didn't He stop this from happening? Jesus didn't lead anybody astray, but He has always allowed men to mess up, and mess up they have.

All men sin. Does that mean that God gave sinful men His holy word as a lamp unto our feet and then took it away through men who didn't know how to translate it? Why would He do that?

"The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever."
(Isaiah 40:8)

Or His word can fade like the flower. Which is it?


I agree. You probably don't realize how much I love the Bible.

Personally, I measure the reliability of all scripture by what the Holy Ghost tells me is true. I don't measure the Bible any differently than I measure the Book of Mormon. If I were to read the Qur'an, I'd measure it the same way. I'm not sure if you're really not understanding what I'm saying or if you're just trying to be difficult. All I have said is that the greater the degree to which fallible men are involved, the greater the chance there is for error.

I'm saying that if there is such a great chance for error, it means that God doesn't really care whether we obey Him or not. All men should therefore become deists or atheists. What is the point of giving us a lamp unto our feet if the lamp is going to burn out?

That shouldn't be that difficult to understand. And I don't appreciate being called disingenuous by someone who doesn't even know me at all. Would you?

I'm sorry that you are offended. Do you think you should criticize the word of God by saying that it hasn't been translated correctly? Should you judge it by a different method than you do your own Book of Mormon? What do the original documents have to do with it. Where are the original documents for the Book of Mormon?

They were fallible. The were God's prophets but the only infallible person who has ever lived is Jesus Christ, in my opinion.

Okay, does God use fallible men or infallible men to record scriptures? Is scripture actually God-breathed or does he allow men to write down whatever they feel like writing? If He doesn't care what they write, we really can't call scripture authoritative or say that it is the source of official doctrine for followers of Christ.
 
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9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
ἀλήθεια;1382269 said:
If scripture actually is God-breathed as the Bible claims, it is not posssible that men made mistakes.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (2 Tim. 3:16-17)
And what evidence leads you to the conclusion that the author of Timothy would identify the Book of Revelation, for instance, or even the Gospels as "scripture"?
 
And what evidence leads you to the conclusion that the author of Timothy would identify the Book of Revelation, for instance, or even the Gospels as "scripture"?

For me, I have faith. For others that faith is lacking. What would lead a person to believe that Genesis or Malachi is true? The average Christian does not have access to early manuscripts or an education in Hebrew and Greek and Latin. He is brought to faith without any proof or evidence of early manuscripts. Nevertheless, afterwards he may begin to study those matters or he may not. The Bible says that the Holy Spirit will lead the sheep into all truth. I don't see the time frame for learning all truth pertaining to God, but we shall be like Christ when we see Him. And God will perform the work in our lives until the day of Jesus Christ.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
ἀλήθεια;1382269 said:
If scripture actually is God-breathed as the Bible claims, it is not posssible that men made mistakes.
Obviously we disagree. Maybe our disagreement stems from our understanding of what we mean by the phrase "God-breathed."

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." (2 Tim. 3:16-17)
You continue to post these same verses. I'm not sure why.

Why does God allow some people to be Methodists, some Catholics, some LDS, some FLDS?
He allows us our free agency, as I already stated.

Why does Satan tempt people to twist what God says is truth?
Satan's goal is to prevent as many as possible from returning to our Father in Heaven.

Walking in darkness is a result of the fall. Does a person who is brought to Christ immediately have a perfect knowledge of God's word?
Of course not.

What are the translations that you are referring to and how are they significantly different from one another?

Authorised Version
English Standard Version
Good News Bible
Holman Christian Standard Bible
J B Phillips New Testament
King James Version
The Living Bible
The Message
New American Bible
New American Standard Bible
New International Version
(New) Jerusalem Bible
New King James Bible
New Living Translation
(New) Revised Standard Version
The Orthodox Study Bible
Today’s English Version
Today’s New International Version

Check them out for yourself.

Is the FLDS church a denomination of Mormonism or of Christianity, IYO?
The FLDS Church is not affiliated with the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints. It broke away from the LDS Church years ago. It also claims to be a Christian Church. Do I believe Jesus Christ would approve of its practices? No. Now, let's get back to our discussion on the Bible, okay?

All men sin. Does that mean that God gave sinful men His holy word as a lamp unto our feet and then took it away through men who didn't know how to translate it? Why would He do that?
That's an interesting twist on what actually happened. Jesus called apostles to direct His Church. They were all martyred and the authority He gave them was not passed on to anyone. Hence, no one was in a position to receive revelation on behalf of the Church and men were essentially left without the authority to act in God's name.

"The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever."
(Isaiah 40:8)

Or His word can fade like the flower. Which is it?
His word will never fade. Men's alterations can change what He said or leave parts of what He said out. The books that are missing from the Bible prove that this is the case.

I'm saying that if there is such a great chance for error, it means that God doesn't really care whether we obey Him or not. All men should therefore become deists or atheists. What is the point of giving us a lamp unto our feet if the lamp is going to burn out?
Paul prophesied of an Apostasy. He also prophesied of a Restoration.

I'm sorry that you are offended. Do you think you should criticize the word of God by saying that it hasn't been translated correctly?
No you're not. You said I was being disingenuous. That was a comment meant to offend. I am not criticizing the word of God. I am saying that the Bible contains translation errors, and most scholars would agree with that statement.

Should you judge it by a different method than you do your own Book of Mormon?
I don't.

What do the original documents have to do with it. Where are the original documents for the Book of Mormon?
Why is it that some people feel compelled to turn every thread into an anti-Mormon one? I already answered this question. Read what I said and try to stay on topic from here on out, please.

Okay, does God use fallible men or infallible men to record scriptures? Is scripture actually God-breathed or does he allow men to write down whatever they feel like writing? If He doesn't care what they write, we really can't call scripture authoritative or say that it is the source of official doctrine for followers of Christ.
He uses fallible men. Do you believe there is such a thing as an infallible man (other than Christ)? Could you name a few?
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
ἀλήθεια;1382293 said:
For me, I have faith. For others that faith is lacking. What would lead a person to believe that Genesis or Malachi is true? The average Christian does not have access to early manuscripts or an education in Hebrew and Greek and Latin. He is brought to faith without any proof or evidence of early manuscripts. Nevertheless, afterwards he may begin to study those matters or he may not. The Bible says that the Holy Spirit will lead the sheep into all truth. I don't see the time frame for learning all truth pertaining to God, but we shall be like Christ when we see Him. And God will perform the work in our lives until the day of Jesus Christ.
And as odd as you may find this, I agree completely with this statement.
 
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