Note: I've snipped some of the quotes to get under the character limit.
No.
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I have only seen it used that way by atheists in very special situations--debates with theists over the existence of gods.
How would you tell?
It's not as if the theological beliefs of babies or rocks come up in conversation very often, so what is it about the way that I (or anyone else) use the term "atheist" that says to you that it's being used in a way that's inconsistent with the definition I give for the term?
Not quite.
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People don't call babies atheists normally, because they do not consider mere "absence of belief" a sufficient criterion for atheism.
If we're talking about usage, well, I don't habitually talk about the beliefs of babies at all.
It seems to me that you're trying to perform a logical divide-by-zero: if the fact that I don't often refer use the term "atheist" to refer to a baby is supposed to mean something, then wouldn't it mean something as well that I
never use the term "atheist" in a way that would implicitly
exclude babies without some sort of qualifier (e.g. speaking explicitly about respondents to a particular survey)?
You're trying to make an inference from the fact that I just don't talk about babies' beliefs very often.
As an analogy, I've never once seen you use the term "
waffle slab". Which do you think is the more reasonable inference for me to draw from this?
- that you're implicitly stating that you don't believe that the term "waffle" should be used to describe reinforced concrete.
- that you just don't talk about structural design very often (not on RF, anyhow).
Basically, you're trying to draw inferences from a lack of information. This is normally a bad idea.
The experience I am having with you does have that flavor. Have you been drinking beer before you make these posts?
You do understand what I'm getting at, don't you? The hockey fan probably cares more about the proper usage of the term "hockey" than the person who doesn't really know the game at all. Same in this case: people generally care more about the labels that apply to themselves than other people do. I care more about the distinctions between atheism and agnosticism, for instance, than I do about the distinctions between pantheism and panentheism. I'd expect this to be reversed for a pantheist.
A linguistic one. I am using it to split hairs with you over what it means to call someone an "atheist".
But to what end? Why does it matter to you?
I looked at a number of dictionaries,
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You have cherry-picked one dictionary definition that uses your pet phrase--"lack of belief"--but with an associated usage example that suggests rejection.
I didn't cherry-pick anything. I just used the same sources that you cited with the expectation that if you considered them authoritative when they agreed with you, that you'd concede that they were authoritative when they disagreed with you as well. I guess I was wrong.
This is just an exercise in special pleading for you, isn't it? I'm starting to get the sense that it's not so much that you care about coming to the correct conclusion based on the facts at hand, but instead that you're just interested in picking and choosing the facts that support your position and ignoring the rest.
Occam's Broom, basically.
I have not claimed that no dictionary uses your wording. What I have claimed is that it is rarely used and probably only used because of the popularity of the definition, as opposed to an objective examination of how the word is actually used by people.
I'm having trouble figuring out what you're arguing here. On the one hand, it seems like you're saying that it's only negligibly used, but then you also concede that it is used... but you give an excuse for this. Which is it?
All dictionaries contain some poor definitions.
And you're the judge of which definitions are good and which ones are "poor"? Convenient.
You are really cherry-picking and nitpicking the wording of these definitions. For example, you take a phrase like "inability to believe" to be associated exclusively with neutrality of belief, whereas I see it as meaning incredulity.
No, I'm just looking for consistency in your argument. If you're going to argue that atheism implies capacity for (but rejection of) theistic belief, then the fact that the definition refers to an incapacity for belief creates a problem for your argument.
And where did you get "exclusively" from? Not from me, anyhow. I've never once said that atheism
implies lack of belief; just that it
allows for lack of belief. Atheists can have positions that range from utter, explicit rejection of gods to no beliefs about gods at all.
Inability to believe is not just associated with "lack of capacity".
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You are looking at the entailment as semantic equivalence (a symmetrical relationship), but it is not.
No, I'm not looking at it as an equivalence. The only question that's relevant here is whether an absence of belief should be considered atheism or not. IOW, what is it about atheists that makes them atheists?
First of all, the word "disbelieve" is a word being used to describe a word sense,
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So going to the dictionary to explain the words in definitions is a bit incestuous, since that practice can lead to circularity.
So we can throw out all
your arguments about the definition of the term "disbelieve" as well, then?
Nevertheless, pay attention to the ambiguity inherent in the expression "not believe". It can also mean "believe that not..." Highlighting it does not remove the ambiguity.
I didn't say that disbelieve only means "not believe". I'm saying that it can mean
either definition. Either one is valid; the "hold not worthy..." definition is a side matter; the relevant question is whether simple lack of belief validly meets the definition of "disbelieve", and it does. It does it through the second definition: "not believe".
In general, you wouldn't say that a usage of a word has to meet every definition given for that word for the usage to be valid, would you?
No, you misconstrued my point.
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There is a difference between general words senses, which dictionaries try to capture, and specific usage, where meanings can be widened or narrowed to fit the circumstances.
But if a word is invalid, then logical problems arise. For instance, if I said that I was going to do a study of the mating habits of all dogs of the species
felis catus, or that I was going to do a survey of quadriplegic marathon runners, I wouldn't be "widening the meaning to fit the circumstances", I would be wrong. There would be a contradiction: the definition of "dog" doesn't allow for cats; the definition of "quadriplegic" doesn't allow for running. If the definition of "non-smoker" doesn't allow for infants, than any talk of infant non-smokers would be nonsense whether it's in the context of a survey or not.
If you did a survey of atheists vs. non-atheists in the American population and counted babies as atheists, you would be laughed out of the room.
So? I'd be hard-pressed to think of a survey of babies that wouldn't be ridiculed.
Babies, on the other hand (and as I pointed out), have lungs and they breathe. They do not have a concept of God. In that sense, you can count them as "smokers", but not "atheists".
So you have to have a concept of God to be an atheist? I want to make I'm absolutely clear on your position on this, because I plan to hold you to it later.
But while we're on the subject: are
ignostics atheists? And just so we're clear, let's assume an adult ignostic who's had ample opportunity to think about religion and theistic claims.
You still miss the point.
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People are rarely conscious of how they actually use language.
You made a positive claim there: that my usage of the term "atheist" doesn't conform to my definition.
It seems to me that this suggests an obvious course of action: that you demonstrate that this is true. I've got more than 20,000 posts here; many of them discuss atheism. If you're right (and you can think of some good search terms), it should be a simple matter for you to find an example of me using the term "atheist" in a way that would implicitly exclude infants.
Correct. Atheism does carry a stigma with it, and you may call the effect you are looking for by its technical name: "euphemism".
I know the word; I was just making a point.
People also avoid using terms when they might mislead others.
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It is much easier to apply the euphemisms to a broader class of individuals precisely because they lack the nuances we associate with "atheist".
But you do agree that most of the nuances that people normally infer aren't a part of any valid definition of atheism, right? They're normally things like "hatred of God", "evilness", "antipathy toward religion", "anti-patriotism", "communism", "misanthropy", "anger", etc.
Do you agree that people infer these sorts of meanings for the term "atheism", but they do so invalidly?