You are making a very subtle distinction here.
Well, it was a subtle (but important) misrepresentation on your part.
Analogy: if the question was instead "what should people drink in the mornings?" and your position was that it is wrong to drink tea in the morning, it would not support your case if you presented a survey where even 100% of the respondents said they drank coffee, because "I drink coffee" does not necessarily imply "I think it's
wrong to drink tea".
That's like what you were doing when you represented the survey the way you did. "
I use the word
this way" does not necessarily imply "I think it's wrong for
you to use the word
that way".
I do insist that there is a difference between support for a definition and actual word usage.
Red herring.
Your claim just now was that the dictionary definition supports your claim that I'm wrong. I showed, at length, that my definition is perfectly well-accommodated by the dictionary definitions of the terms involved. Your new apparent position that dictionary definitions don't matter that much doesn't change this fact.
Note that these were speculative answers on your part--putting words in the mouths of imaginary people. We have no data to support them.
And therefore no data to support the idea that their effect on usage is negligible, which you would need if you want to claim usage as support of your position,
even if you were right about how people use the term.
That is a potential rationalization for usage that may be completely irrelevant to how they use "atheist" and "theist". Again, you have to be careful to distinguish actual usage from opinions about usage. You do not seem to get this point. If you were a linguist, you would. Linguistic intuitions can be very tricky. In any case, this would not explain why many atheists also tend to disagree with your definition.
What do atheists have to do with it? When it suited you, you were all about the "general English-speaking population". Are we back to just considering atheists now? Or are there no Catholics in your "general English-speaking population"?
Again, we have no evidence of this phenomenon, but it is a possible influence. However, it is contradicted by the fact that many atheists also disagree with your judgment.
Atheists who were raised in a culture that has religious influences, or who were actually raised in a religious setting themselves. What effect has that had? I have no idea, but it's
your argument that implicitly declares this effect to be negligible. You're the one with the burden of proof here.
I think that neither of those objections is sufficient to explain the pattern of data. When I tried the survey in a venue that was almost exclusively atheist (Secular Cafe), the majority disagreed that "atheist" was an appropriate label for babies. Neither of your points can explain that.
Unless they explicitly said that "atheist" was an inappropriate label for babies
because they agree with your definition, then your conclusion that they support your case is based on inferences on your part. Are those inferences valid? I have no idea; they're up to you to defend.
Then explain what your criterion for "correct" terminology is. What determines it?
Usage... what you claim as your Holy Grail, even if you won't accept it from someone else.
You (and many other people) use the term in a narrow way. I (and many other people) use the term in a broader way. Based on usage,
both are valid. Therefore, when we ask what is encompassed by a valid use of the term "atheist" the broader use determines validity.
In the case of the "lacks belief" definition, I think that the definition itself is being used to motivate usage, not the other way around.
Even if that were true, why would it matter?
According to you, usage is all that matters, and "usage motivated by the definition itself" is still usage, isn't it?