Brian2
Veteran Member
Luke is written as a first-hand account. It obviously isn't. Where does Luke admit he was not an eyewitness?
How does Luke know what transpired between Zacharias and the angle?
Speculation or a reasonable evaluation of the available facts? There is a difference.
For a sceptic it seems like a reasonable evaluation to dismiss prophecy and subsequently have to ignore any internal evidence to arrive at the conclusion of where and when a gospel was written.
So, according to you, no Christian or Hebrew scholar came to the same conclusion. Please cite some of these secular historians and their documented religious beliefs.
I did not say that no Christian or Hebrew scholar came to the same conclusion. What I was saying is that they were using secular historian assumptions.
These assumptions crept into the Biblical colleges and that is what many Christian ministers and theologians have been taught.
Also, I see you used the phrase "prophesied destruction of the temple". Is this the prophecy?
2And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.
When was the Gospel According to Mark Written? (my emphasis)In any case, how does Mark know what Jesus said?
Those who favor an earlier date argue that Mark's language indicates that the author knew that there would be serious trouble in the future but, unlike Luke, didn't know exactly what that trouble would entail. Of course, it wouldn’t have taken divinely inspired prophecy to guess that the Romans and Jews were on yet another collision course.
Those who argue for a later date say that Mark was able to include the prophecy about the destruction of the Temple because it had already happened. Most say that Mark was written during the war when it was obvious that Rome was going to exact a terrible vengeance on the Jews for their rebellion, even though the details were unknown. Some lean more towards later in the war, some earlier. For them, it doesn’t make a great deal of difference whether Mark wrote shortly before the destruction of the Temple in 70 CE or shortly after.
All the synoptics have that prophecy and they were either there hearing Jesus or did their research, heard the story, like Luke. The only gospel without the prophecy is the one that really was written after the destruction of the temple.
But as you say, it is this prophecy which marks the point when the gospels had to have been written.
It should actually make a difference whether it was before, during or after the war. The prophecy says "not one stone will be left on another". The heat of the fire in the temple melted the gold and it went down between the stones so the Romans upturned the stones to get it, not stone left on another.