Trailblazer
Veteran Member
Baha'u'llah is not the same as God because God is apart from, and immeasurably exalted above all created things.Is God real? Absolute truth or a relative truth? Baha'u'llah is a manifestation of God? Same thing?
“Regard thou the one true God as One Who is apart from, and immeasurably exalted above, all created things. The whole universe reflecteth His glory, while He is Himself independent of, and transcendeth His creatures. This is the true meaning of Divine unity. He Who is the Eternal Truth is the one Power Who exerciseth undisputed sovereignty over the world of being, Whose image is reflected in the mirror of the entire creation. All existence is dependent upon Him, and from Him is derived the source of the sustenance of all things. This is what is meant by Divine unity; this is its fundamental principle.”
Gleanings From the Writings of Bahá’u’lláh, p. 166
Baha'u'llah was a Manifestation of God and as such His Will was identical with the Will of God. That is what Baha'is refer to as Divine Unity.
“The essence of belief in Divine unity consisteth in regarding Him Who is the Manifestation of God and Him Who is the invisible, the inaccessible, the unknowable Essence as one and the same. By this is meant that whatever pertaineth to the former, all His acts and doings, whatever He ordaineth or forbiddeth, should be considered, in all their aspects, and under all circumstances, and without any reservation, as identical with the Will of God Himself. This is the loftiest station to which a true believer in the unity of God can ever hope to attain. Blessed is the man that reacheth this station, and is of them that are steadfast in their belief.” Gleanings, p. 167
As a Manifestation of God, the principle of Divine Unity also applied to Jesus and that is what it means to be "one with the Father."
John 14:11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.
John 17:21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
Jesus was like a clear mirror, and God became visible in the mirror. This is why Jesus said, “The Father is in the Son” (John 14:11, John 17:21), meaning that God is visible and manifest in Jesus.
“I and my Father are one” (John 10:30) means that Jesus and God are one and the same, so whatever pertains to Jesus, all His acts and doings are so whatever pertains to Jesus, all His acts and doings, are identical with the Will of the Father. Jesus and God also share the same Holy Spirit, so in that sense they are one and the same. Jesus also shares the Attributes of God so in that sense they are one and the same. The verse below says that God was manifest in the flesh; it does not say that God became flesh.
1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
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The Works of Jesus were identical with the works of the Father and that is why Jesus said to the Jews:
John 10:25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
John 10:37-38 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
I also go with the sham explanation rather than the symbolic one. The fact that the story was written as if true and it is not true means it is a sham. Abdu'l-Baha just had his own way of stating that and gave a suggestion as to what it might symbolize.But is that what the Baha'i Faith teaches? No, it's not a sham but an allegorical story. And, as you know, I believe that if it isn't literally true, I'd go with the sham explanation and not the "symbolic", "allegorical" Baha'i explanation.
Because of the principle of Divine unity we believe that whatever Baha'u'llah revealed is as if God had revealed it, so it has to be inerrant. Baha'is believe in the virgin birth because Baha'u'llah wrote that Jesus was born through the direct intervention of the Holy Spirit and had no human father.But now we got another problem... Why do Baha'is believe the gospels when they say Jesus was born of a virgin? Scientifically, I'd think it's impossible. No genes and all the DNA stuff from a man? How and why would an unfertilized egg grow into a human? So why do you believe it is really true? Or, do you?
"First regarding the birth of Jesus Christ. In light of what Bahá’u’lláh and ‘Abdu’l-Bahá have stated concerning this subject it is evident that Jesus came into this world through the direct intervention of the Holy Spirit, and that consequently His birth was quite miraculous. This is an established fact, and the friends need not feel at all surprised, as the belief in the possibility of miracles has never been rejected in the Teachings. Their importance, however, has been minimized."
(From a letter dated December 31, 1937 written on behalf of the Guardian to an individual believer)
Lights of Guidance/Christ - Bahaiworks, a library of works about the Bahá’í Faith