My mistake for thinking you were trying to make a relevant point, I guess.Ya, I am sorry, but this is not very interesting. Just live with the fact I shared my thoughts on the chart.
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My mistake for thinking you were trying to make a relevant point, I guess.Ya, I am sorry, but this is not very interesting. Just live with the fact I shared my thoughts on the chart.
My mistake for thinking you were trying to make a relevant point, I guess.
Not to mention irrelevant. The chart delineates sets of atheists.... but I just don't really feel a deep analysis of the chart would be all that interesting.
Speaking in general and in your opinion, do non-believers hold a double standard when it comes to religion?
Such as for example: Demanding religious claims be backed by hard evidence, but then not holding the same standards for their own claims.
Speaking in general and in your opinion, do non-believers hold a double standard when it comes to religion?
Such as for example: Demanding religious claims be backed by hard evidence, but then not holding the same standards for their own claims.
Speaking in general? And your title directed it towards atheists........but speaking in general.
Do non-believers hold a double standard when it comes to religion?
Name any religion, I mean a specific religion, not Christianity or Judaism or Hinduism or Islam, but a specific religion such as Catholicism, Orthodox, the divisions of Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism etc.......name any specific one of those religions and the fact is that the majority of the population would be non-believers of those religions. Their is no single religion that is dominant among a majority of the population of this planet,
All of these religions, which exist in a minority over the entirety of the human population, demand evidence for their claims but the majority do not believe in them for their own various religious or non-religious beliefs. They all hold contradictory demands of proof, or rather faith, for their beliefs. Namely upon specific cultural beliefs.
But they all adhere that others hold the same standards despite their disparate beliefs.
Then.....we have atheists. Who uphold a set of arguments contradicting all religious beliefs while at the same the many different religious beliefs are upholding standards against each other.
What is the standard? Where do you even find a standard?
Okay....I'm picking on the OP. Stating that the various religious beliefs do not adhere to a single standard.
But it is known that atheism holds no belief in a God.......a central force that created the universe and devised moral standards upon humanity. But actually, there are religious beliefs that believe there is a God that created the universe but did not devise moral standards upon humanity.
At this point I'm finding the OP ridiculous. But let's narrow it down to simple religious cosmology. Or in other words whether or not there was a single creative force upon the universe and disregard all mythology and cultural mores as defined by the disparate religions. Simply.....was there a single creative intelligent force behind existence or not?
Well,, many religious traditions have debated this concept within their own culture and devised their own standards and atheism simply adheres to demanding an evidentiary based standard that many religious cultures have tried to answer.
So where is the double standard?
Where is the evidence that atheists are not holding themselves to their own standard while demanding hard evidence?
Their are religious believers who denounced the witch hunts where non-believers did so as well. There are religious believers studying the evolution of the universe and it's expansion alongside atheists studying the same phenomenon.
The OP failed to provide any standards for discussion.
Which religious claims? By whom? Non-believers who are religious discount numerous religious claims made by religious people.
What a stupid ****ing thread.
And what evidence, if any, was presented that atheists are not providing "hard evidence" for their own claims? None.
What a stupid ****ing thread.
Good day. Wa an. My keyboard doesn't have the pinyin capability.
Jiu hao mung.
Not to mention irrelevant. The chart delineates sets of atheists.
I'm wondering what such an assertion would have to do with atheism/atheists in the first place. If someone says "the moon is made of cheese," what would being an atheist have to do with it? Such an assertion doesn't relate to the existence of god(s), which is the only thing atheism is actually about.You are so angry all the time it impedes your ability to listen.
Any atheist that makes the assertion they never make an unsubstantiated claim is flat out a lair. That assertion could be anything, like the Moon is made of cheese. That is the double standard.
I'm wondering what such an assertion would have to do with atheism/atheists in the first place. If someone says "the moon is made of cheese," what would being an atheist have to do with it? Such an assertion doesn't relate to the existence of god(s), which is the only thing atheism is actually about.
Yes they do. I hear them all the time start by assuming fluctuations in energy fields. Fluctuating fields are mysterious but that are things and are theoretical causes.Saying that something is its own cause is different than saying it has no cause. Most quantum events have no cause. Nothing precedes them that determines that they will happen.
No, a prime mover as an explanation of all derivative matter is just as necessary in considering events in time, actual sequential divisions of time, and all state changes in time, etc... All require an uncaused first cause.And he is wrong in that.
The point is that the 'context' is completely irrelevant to reality. Aquinas assumed certain things about motion which were based on Aristotelian physics. But we know that Aristotle was wrong. So Aquinas' conclusions are based on faulty premises.
Yes it is, if the universe existed an infinite time ago we could not possibly reach now. Claiming an impossibility is possible is a contradiction.Again, you have given no reason why it is impossible to accomplish in an infinite amount of time. It is NOT a contradiction!
Consider two shores separated by an infinite sea, how are you going to build a bridge between them? No matter how long you have been building and no matter what rate your building at you will always be an infinite distance away from your destination. I do not even care of you started building and never stopped, you would still never produce an infinite bridge. I don't care if you pick any point along the bridge being already under construction, you will eternally remain infinitely short of your goal.You have merely claimed, without proof, that it is impossible to 'traverse' an infinite number of instants.
It is an inference to the best explanation. If we have a current state of affairs, then all past sequential states of affairs must necessarily resolve to an uncaused caused first cause. Like I keep saying, if you have a dollar then someone a finite time ago produced a dollar. If we need to keep looking infinitely into the past to find the person to loan us a dollar we will never have the dollar. Since we have a dollar (a universe or a now) then someone that transcends nature produced a universe a finite time ago. Think of the past sequence of events following having an actual state of affairs in the infinite past (it does not have to do anything with a starting point), how are we going to traverse the infinite stated of affairs necessary to result in the current state? If we ever asked for a dollar (looked for an external reality) and eventually received the dollar then the chain of regression had to end with a guy producing a dollar a finite time ago. How many analogies are required to illustrate an obvious conclusion? Start at any number (you do not even have to start at the beginning, just pick a random number) and begin counting, you will never reach infinity. If you can't add events to create an infinite then you can't subtract actual things to gain an infinity either.But the uniqueness of an uncaused cause is central to your claim.
Wow, you responded to my claim that you always cry "quantum" when your philosophy fails, and you rebut me by using the "quantum".And, again, quantum fluctuation. Specifically, electron-positron pairs come into existence without anything preceding and without a cause.
There is no known exception to the argument that anything that begins to exist has a cause. There is no known exception to the argument that everything that exists has an explanation. At least none available to 99.99% of the population. My claims are consistent with observable reality, without exception. Your claims exist as a possibility in a tiny corner of a not so well understood theory younger than I am.Please learn a bit about the real world before you make claims about how it 'must' be. Causality is dependent on natural laws, and hence is part of the universe. Because of this, the universe *cannot* have a cause.
My faith is not based on wish fulfillment, I had no expectation what so ever (I mean zero) of what to expect concerning encountering the Holy Spirit (or even that it was possible) but as a byproduct of that confirmation of God's existence, there is now reason to hope. Only with a deity is there hope for a paradisiacal eternal life, ultimate meaning to existence, reunion with loved ones, ultimate purpose to the universe, ultimate moral truths, ultimate justice, sanctity in human life, a moral explanation for our claims to biological sovereignty, racial equality, an end, reckoning, and cure for man's moral insanity, etc.......ad infinitum.Why do you wish so much to live in a universe with a deity?
I claim the evidence is sufficient, you claim it is not. Let's take a look at one of (if not the) greatest expert on testimony and evidence in human history and see which one he agrees with.My opinion has nothing at all to do with the evidence or the arguments. The arguments you made for the existence of a God are flawed. The evidence is, at best, ambiguous. At worst, it shows that the Christian viewpoint is pure mythology.
Umm, okay.I actually already addressed that question earlier in the thread as well. I know it is a long thread to read, but I also don't feel like repeating myself over and over.
No, there is a theory about their occurrence. That theory describes the probabilities of their happening during various time periods, but does NOT propose a cause for them.Yes they do. I hear them all the time start by assuming fluctuations in energy fields. Fluctuating fields are mysterious but that are things and are theoretical causes.
No, a prime mover as an explanation of all derivative matter is just as necessary in considering events in time, actual sequential divisions of time, and all state changes in time, etc... All require an uncaused first cause.
Just a second, I am NOT claiming there was a point an infinite amount of time ago. ALL times are a finite amount of time into the past (the duration em to us is always finite). But those durations are unbounded. That is what it means to have time go infinitely into the past. It is *very* different than a start that was infinitely far into the past.Yes it is, if the universe existed an infinite time ago we could not possibly reach now. Claiming an impossibility is possible is a contradiction.
Consider two shores separated by an infinite sea, how are you going to build a bridge between them? No matter how long you have been building and no matter what rate your building at you will always be an infinite distance away from your destination. I do not even care of you started building and never stopped, you would still never produce an infinite bridge. I don't care if you pick any point along the bridge being already under construction, you will eternally remain infinitely short of your goal.
And that is contradictory. Causes are always part of the universe. It is impossible to have a 'cause' that is prior to time or that is not within the universe of existing things.It is an inference to the best explanation. If we have a current state of affairs, then all past sequential states of affairs must necessarily resolve to an uncaused caused first cause. Like I keep saying, if you have a dollar then someone a finite time ago produced a dollar. If we need to keep looking infinitely into the past to find the person to loan us a dollar we will never have the dollar. Since we have a dollar (a universe or a now) then someone that transcends nature produced a universe a finite time ago.
I did not claim there was a state of affairs an infinite amount of time in the past. Do you understand the distinction between that and the statement that time is infinite?Think of the past sequence of events following having an actual state of affairs in the infinite past (it does not have to do anything with a starting point), how are we going to traverse the infinite stated of affairs necessary to result in the current state?
If we ever asked for a dollar (looked for an external reality) and eventually received the dollar then the chain of regression had to end with a guy producing a dollar a finite time ago. How many analogies are required to illustrate an obvious conclusion? Start at any number (you do not even have to start at the beginning, just pick a random number) and begin counting, you will never reach infinity. If you can't add events to create an infinite then you can't subtract actual things to gain an infinity either.
Yes, I do. Quantum mechanics isn't a causal description of the universe. I tis also the *best* description we have ever had. I'm sorry, but I'mnot going to use the older Newtonian version in a situation where I know it doesn't apply.Wow, you responded to my claim that you always cry "quantum" when your philosophy fails, and you rebut me by using the "quantum".
There is no known exception to the argument that anything that begins to exist has a cause. There is no known exception to the argument that everything that exists has an explanation. My claims are consistent with observable reality, without exception. Your claims exist as a possibility in a tiny corner of a not se well understood theory.
No, your trying to govern the supernatural by the one thing that can't govern it "the natural". God's decisions and actions are not governed by what governs what they are independent of.And that misunderstands the nature of causality. Causality *always* depends on time. Whatever causes is prior *in time* to whatever the effect is.
I don't thing there is another option unless you consider other types of theologies. There are few things in theological debates as obviously true and simplistic as moral ontology. When someone assumes the counter position of every premise and every conclusion regardless of type it starts to look like a tactic instead of sincere conclusions.I understand both of your claims and I reject both of them.
What are you using asterisks to indicate? In this context your distinction makes little difference and you. What ethics came about? Since some societies pray for their neighbors and some prey of their neighbors and there exists no transcendent moral truth to appeal to. Who is right?I *don't* look to evolution for ethics. I look to evolution to *explain* how ethics come about.
Since humans subdue every other form of life on the planet then we are left right where we began, might makes right or preference. Every moral argument that excludes God will right back in this same place every single time. Hitler's Germany had their own ethics, Stalin's USSR had it's own ethics, Mao's China their own. By your standards they are just as "right" as anyone else and should have been left alone to do as they prefer.Since we are human, human well-being is what we are concerned about and hence, is the basis of our ethics. Giraffes may well have a different ethics.
So the mere fact that we can consider moral issues makes our incarceration of cows and pumping them full of hormones ok? What about flooding the lungs of race horses with glucose and baking soda? Or our raising dogs purely to fight? That's all fine because we can thing about ethics?But I don't justify it that way. I justify it via the fact that we are a species that engages in moral contemplation.
No it does not. God's essence (nature) determines moral values and duties. God is composed of all "great making properties". God's nature is just - this makes injustice actually wrong, not just inconsistent with God's opinion. God has been equated with love its self - which makes hate (and probably indifference) actually wrong, not merely inconsistent with God's opinion.No, it depends on the opinions of God. That may well be God's 'nature', but that only means that ethics are independent of God's viewpoint. Is that your claim? That God's viewpoint merely aligns rather than defines what is good?
On the contrary, none of these actually promote human well-being. That is clear from the millions killed by Hitler. That you see it as potentially serving the well-being of humans shows your complete lack of a true moral sense.
So God is either composed entirely of an opinion or he cannot exist. Glad we got that straightened out. You said above God's opinion determines reality and here you say the opposite. Which is it?If it doesn't depend on God's choice, then God is irrelevant to it. While God's opinion may well coincide with morality, it doesn't determine morality. So it is better to look for what does determine morality (i.e, human well-being) than to look to a deity for our counsel.
@Jeremiahcp, my chart does not suggest there are no subcategories of group A.I thought that might be your response, so I came up with a witty rebuttal ahead of time: I disagree!
There has to be a reason it is on the chart, whether realized or not, and it certainly can be read the way I read it.No, the chart is focusing on the categories of atheistsThe chart is suggesting there are no subcategories of group A.What does that have to do with Pudding's chart?You are joking, right? I would not even know how to begin to start counting all the various branches of monotheism.
Nope, God is independent of time. His actions are not bound by time (unless he chooses to break into time to take some specific action). God is causally prior to time, but not temporally prior to time. God is not bound by the natural, that is why he is called supernatural.You are making the basic mistake of assuming causality to be older than the universe. Not so, the laws that are fundamental to the current state of this universe did not coalesce until 10e-36 to 10e-32 of a second after the bb event.
Whether the laws of casualty existed in what (if anything) was before this universe is a moot point, it is unknown.
You previously say "the claim of atheism is that there is no god".And?
I do not think so. Leibnitz's argument states that everything that exists has an explanation of it's self either within it's self or external to it's self. God is his own explanation, but what that explanation is does it go any further than that existence is a component of God's nature. I think these are what are called brute fact or properly basic beliefs.Does Aquinas say anything about why this first cause would exist in the first place?