Sorry but I couldn't find any answer in there. If God says "if men have sex with each other kill them" is it objectively moral to kill them? If, later, God says that this doesn't apply anymore, is it then objectively immoral to kill them? I'm just trying to figure out if killing men for having sex with each other is objectively moral or immoral or if we have to consult God every time we feel like killing homosexuals to find out if it's presently objectively moral or immoral...
Dang it, my computer froze up and deleted my original post so you get the short version.
You combined three subjects as they were all linked.
Moral ontology:
1. God's nature makes homosexuality immoral at all times.
Command ontology:
1. God's commands can change even if the moral values they are based on never change.
2. According to DCT God's commands are objective.
Moral epistemology:
1. This is unrelated to moral ontology and command ontology.
2. This is about how we come to know what God commands.
3. The primary method by which we know what God commands, is by his revelation.
4. Just as we do, God gives different commands based on differing circumstances, even though his moral values don't change. And yes according to DCT they would be objective.
5. God said it was lawful to kill homosexuals concerning a specific culture, for a specific time, and for a specific purpose which has now been fulfilled. Christ instituted a new covenant 2000 years ago which did not change what was right or wrong, but what should be done about it. So there is no need to ask God anything about killing homosexuals and you should have already known that based on my previous posts.
6. Every time I look up one of these kill commands in Jewish sources I find all kinds of additional requirements that must be met. For example the command to kill disobedient children required both parents consent and a review by a temple elder. They all had to agree.