paarsurrey said:
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Was there any capitalization practice in the ancient times also, please?
If not, why not, please?
To add further, the practice of inverted commas never existed in (Jesus') Yeshua- the Israelite Messiah's time in Hebrew or Aramaic the languages Mary , Jesus and the his disciples spoke. They never spoke Greek, one gets to know, please, right?:
"The double quotation mark derives from a marginal notation used in fifteenth-century
manuscript annotations to indicate a passage of particular importance (not necessarily a quotation); the notation was placed in the outside margin of the page and was repeated alongside each line of the passage.
[6] In his edition of the works of
Aristotle, which appeared in 1483 or 1484, the Milanese
Renaissance humanist Francesco Filelfo marked literal and appropriate quotes with oblique double dashes on the left margin of each line.
[7] Until then, literal quotations had been highlighted or not at the author's discretion.
[7] Non-verbal loans were marked on the edge. After the publication of Filelfo's edition, the quotation marks for literal quotations prevailed.
[7] During the seventeenth century this treatment became specific to quoted material, and it grew common, especially in Britain, to print quotation marks (now in the modern opening and closing forms) at the beginning and end of the quotation as well as in the margin"
Quotation mark - Wikipedia
Right?
I just warn the friends here @ RF to be careful and not be mislead by the
"inverted commas" and or the
quotation marks in the Gospels that these are the sayings of Jesus, it is not the case as the four Gospels are the
third person narratives of anonymous narrators as rightly admitted by the
Catholic Encyclopedia:
“The first four historical books of the
New Testament are supplied with titles (
Euangelion kata Matthaion, Euangelion kata Markon, etc.), which, however ancient, do not go back to the respective authors of those sacred writings. The Canon of Muratori,
Clement of Alexandria, and
St. Irenæus bear distinct witness to the existence of those headings in the latter part of the second century of our era. Indeed, the manner in which Clement (
Stromata I.21), and St. Irenæus (
Against Heresies III.11.7) employ them implies that, at that early
date, our present titles to the Gospels had been in current use for some considerable time. Hence, it may be inferred that they were prefixed to the evangelical narratives as early as the first part of that same century. That, however, they do not go back to the first century of the
Christian era, or at least that they are not original, is a position generally held at the present day. It is felt that since they are similar for the four Gospels, although the same Gospels were composed at some interval from each other, those titles were not framed, and consequently not prefixed to each individual narrative, before the collection of the four Gospels was actually made. Besides, as well pointed out by Prof. Bacon, “the historical books of the
New Testament differ from its apocalyptic and epistolary literature, as those of the
Old Testament differ from its prophecy, in being
invariably anonymous, and for the same reason.”
”
It thus appears that the present titles of the Gospels are not traceable to the Evangelists themselves.”
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Gospel and Gospels
" According to (anonymous) Mathew" " According to (anonymous) Mark", and these names (Matthew, Mark, Luka and John) have been given to these anonymous narratives most probably and or most certainly as a deception measure to the simple minded followers of (Jesus) Yeshua- the Israelite Messiah, to win them over for Hellenism (of dying, rising deity) by the Hellenist Paul, his Associates and the Pauline-Church, it transpires, please , right?
Regards