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Both fully God and fully man

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST ONE OF TWO

1) CONFUSION OVER WHAT ONE BELIEVES INSIDE A DEBATE
Hi Mooprea944

I honestly apologize if I have put words in your mouth. No one deserves that. However, you agreed with LightofTruths theory which differs from your explanation.

LightofTruth has been consistent that HIS theory somehow actual sin in actual flesh, including Jesus’ flesh.

SO, when LightofTruth said “A new born baby has the same sinful flesh as every other person.” (post #212)
You responded "Yes, I agree." (post #213)
Once you agreed to his theory, your beliefs were bound to be conflated to some extent with his. You were NOT particularly clear that you did NOT believe a baby had sin in it’s flesh. Therefore, your complaint that you were misunderstood is less justifiable than if you had explained that you did NOT, actually, agree with LightofTruths theory.



2) CLEARS THEORY THAT ORIGINAL CHRISTIANITY IS MOST AUTHENTIC AND MORE RATIONAL AND LOGICAL THAN THAT OF LATER CHRISTIAN MOVEMENTS
Moorea944 says : “But anyhow.... I do like reading your theories though, it's very entertaining!!” (post #234)

My theory is that the earliest Judeo-Christians closest to the time of the original and authentic Christian movement represented the most authentic form of Christianity and, with very few exceptions, THEIR specific doctrines and theories and their interpretations of their text represent the clearest and most rational and most logical and most authentic form of Christianity. This as opposed to the multitude of later competing Christian movements with their specific doctrines and their varying and competing interpretations of the various versions of sacred texts in different languages.

To sum it up, My theory is that generally, the earliest christianity has greater clarity and is superior to the later Christian movements.


3) HISTORICAL AND LINGUISTIC CONTEXT IS IMPORTANT IN EXAMINING ANCIENT RELIGIOUS DOCUMENTS
a) LightofTruth said : “…the context explains how we are to understand the meaning. Ask any reputable Greek scholar and he will tell you that the context is what's most important when translating for proper understanding. (post #226)
That is my point as well. WHY are you allowed to take these principles out of ancient, historical context and apply your personal interpretation to them? Why not leave them in their original context?

b) LightofTruth said : There are many translations of Scripture which say "sinful flesh". Would you like me to list all of them?

Why?, you would simply be listing inaccurate translations. Even you, now admit “…it is more accurate to say "flesh of sin".” (LightofTruth, post @231) This is a good thing you have discovered.

When you looked up the Greek, you discovered what I told you about Greek was true. Perhaps now, you can consider there is something else about language that you either do not know or are not considering. Since we both agree that ancient, historical context is important to meaning, consider what it meant to Paul the HEBREW, when he referred to “flesh” and the Hebraisms associated with such words as “flesh”, “blood” etc.


4) CREATING MODERN THEOLOGIAL DOCTRINES AND THEORIES WITHOUT CONSIDERING LANGUAGE AND HISTORICAL CONTEXT

For example, LightofTruth quotes his corrected version of Romans 8:3 as “…God sent His son in the likeness of the “flesh of sin”. He then continues : "…and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:" LightofTruths interpretation and conclusion is that “It would be impossible for sin in the flesh to be condemned if there was no sin in the flesh of Jesus!


The historical-contextual mistakes of creating this theory on these words are multiple. Firstly, it is easy to see that Paul did not refer to “sin in the flesh OF JESUS”. That concept that Jesus has “sin in his flesh” is layered onto the text which does not have that concept in it.

Another historical-contextual mistake is not to consider what a phrase meant anciently and to the person who wrote the phrase. In early Judeo-Christian literature, there is a different balance between literal and symbolic that exists in the minds of modern, non-hebrew readers than existed anciently. Paul was an ancient Hebrew, using ancient Hebraisms.

5) ANCIENT HEBRAISMS, “FLESH”, “FLESH AND BLOOD”, “FLESH OF SIN”, ETC.
Terms like “flesh and blood” and “Flesh of sin” were Hebraisms for “mankind” in mortality. In early Judeo Christian theology, Adam and Eve originally had glorious, immortal bodies. After the fall of Adam, they and their children had mortal bodies subject to illness and death. This mortal flesh was called “flesh of sin” as opposed to the sinless and glorified flesh their bodies had prior to the fall of Adam.

In early Judeo-Christianity, Adam originally had glorified flesh : “God formed Adam with His holy hands, in His own Image and Likeness and when the angels saw Adam's glorious appearance they were greatly moved by the beauty thereof. For they saw (Fol. 5a, col. 2) the image of his face burning with glorious splendor like the orb of the sun, and the light of his eyes was like the light of the sun, and the image of his body was like unto the sparkling of crystal ” (Cave of Treasures on Creation of Adam)

Jewish Haggadah describes this glory : "When Adam opened his eyes the first time…his admiration for the world surrounding him did not exceed the admiration all creatures conceived for Adam. They took him to be their creator, and they all came to offer his adoration. But he spoke : “Why do you come to worship me? Nay, you and I together will acknowledge the majesty and the might of him who has created us all. (The Haggadah - THE FALL OF ADAM AND EVE)

In Christian (vita) Adam and Eve text After they lost the glorified bodies and took on the "Flesh of sin” (i.e. mortal bodies they had after the transgression) eve says : “And at that very moment my eyes were opened and I knew that I was naked of the righteousness with which I had been clothed. 2 And I wept saying, ‘Why have you (satan) done this to me, that I have been estranged from my glory with which I was clothed?” This flesh she now had was the “flesh of sin” which all mankind then were born into.

The concept of being “clothed” in a garment of glory and loss of this garment and it’s replacement with a garment of sin is found throughout the early literature. Even the fall of Satan from heaven is cast in this same symbolism. It was said of Lucifer : “...he was cast out, and "Daiwâ" because he lost the apparel of his glory. And behold, from that time until the present day, he and all his hosts have been stripped of their apparel, and they go naked...” (Cave of Treasures, chapt on “The Revolt of Satan”)

Ginzberg noted that the haggadic interpretation of “naked” in Gen 3:7, 10 is that the first pair became aware that they were bare of good deeds. ( cf shab 14a; Meg 32a; GenR 19:6; PRE 14). This also, in view of other ancient Jewish and Christian writers asserting that Adam and Eve had garments and glorified bodies of light before the fall. However, it seems not so much as a bareness of good deeds, but rather a loss of “purity”, a loss of a “primal state” (as the christian Abbaton translator said it.) THIS is why the flesh they had after committing transgression was called “flesh of sin” as opposed to “glorified flesh” before the fall.

The loss of glorified “flesh” was cast in the symbolism of clothing. Thus, regarding Adam, Jewish haggadah says “he lost his celestial clothing .... in sorrow he was to earn his daily bread...” (The Haggadah - The Punishment). In similar symbolism, when describing immortal beings in heaven, apo Peter, an early Christian text says “The inhabitants of that place [heaven] were clad with the shining raiment of angels and their raiment was suitable to their place of habitation.” (The apocalypse of Peter). Early hymns similarly reflect this doctrines in their verses : “ I am clothed with a garment of light...and I am passed beyond the pain and anguish of [mortal] bodies" (Angad Roshnan - From the Parthian Hymn-Cycles - The Ship of God VIII)

Many example of such Hebraic symbols are found in early literature. For example, in the “Rechabite” vision of heaven, the heavenly individuals explain : “But we are not naked as you suppose, for we are covered with a covering of glory… we are covered with a stole of glory (similar to that) which clothed Adam and Eve before they sinned.” (History of the Rechabites 12:3)

In early Judeo-Christian tradition, before they sinned, Adam and Eve had “flesh of glory”, and after they sinned, they had “flesh of sin”. “Flesh of sin” was a Hebraism that simply described mortal “mankind” similar to the use of the Hebraism “flesh and blood”.

Flesh and blood” is another Hebraism that denotes mankind in general. The phrase “Flesh and blood hath not revealed it to thee” (of Matt 16:17) simply means “no person hath revealed it to thee.” When Paul points out that “…we fight not with flesh and blood only” (Eph 6:12) the next phrase clarifies the meaning ”the idolatrous rulers and other wicked men of the present age…”

Rabbinic Jews still use this hebraism nowadays. There are multiple examples in the Mishneh Torah that use this Hebraism. For examples (from Sefer Ahavah, Berachot) it is taught that “ One who sees a gentile wise man should recite the blessing: Blessed are You, God, our Lord, King of the universe, who has given from His wisdom to flesh and blood.” And upon seeing a Gentile king, one “…should recite the blessing: Blessed are You, God, our Lord, King of the universe, who has given from His glory to flesh and blood."


POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST TWO OF TWO

Even “flesh” itself denotes mankind. “Flesh and blood”or “Flesh of sin” or “Perishable flesh” simply denote a fallen mankind. Thus the Dead Sea Scrolls speak of “the dominion of Israel among all flesh." THE WAR SCROLL 1QM, 4Q491-496 Col 17:6-8 Using similar language, Clement, the convert and colleague of the apostle Peter refers to God as “the all-seeing God and Master of spirits and Lord of all flesh, who chose the Lord Jesus Christ…” 1 Clement 64:1;

Thus the early Christians said of God, that “He will give form to perishable flesh and heavenly faith to the faithless,,... “ Sibylline Oracles book 8 vs 259-262

The early Christian convert Perpetua, in her diary, still uses this same Hebraism before the third century, quoting For “In the last days, saith the Lord, I will pour forth of my Spirit upon all flesh, and their sons and their daughters shall prophesy: and on my servants and on my handmaidens will I pour forth of my Spirit: and their young men shall see visions, and their old men shall dream dreams…” (The Passion of Perpetua and Felicity)

Christian Vitae describes the resurrection of “all mankind” using the HebraismAll flesh” saying “Then all flesh from Adam up to that great day shall be raised, such as shall be the holy people…” Life of Adam and Eve (Apocalypse) 13:2-6;

Jewish Enoch uses the same Hebraism of “flesh” as a reference to mankind. Enoch also distinguishes mankind into groups that have angered God and those who are righteous and upright, saying “… destroy, O my Lord, the flesh that has angered you from upon the earth, but sustain the flesh of righteousness and uprightness as a plant of eternal seed….” 1st Enoch 84:6

So, while Romans 8:3 does tell us that God “condemned sin in the Flesh”, he is speaking of condemning sin in mankind generally, but it is not telling us God is condemning sin “in the sinless Jesus”.

In fact, when Romans 8:1 says “There is indeed no condemnation for those in Christ Jesus [who] do not walk in the ways of flesh (A,D,ψ81, 365, 629, pc, vg (syp) ) but according [to the] spirit (א2, D2, 33vid, M ar syh).”

The addition of “who do not walk in the ways of flesh” found in the Greek text mentioned makes it clear that these individuals are not required to “walk” outside of their actual flesh, but the context is that they are not living the same manner as the rest of mankind. It makes very clear we are not talking of literal flesh, but are using hebraisms here.


6) SUBJECTING OUR PERSONAL THEORIES TO EXAMINATION
LightofTruth asks : “What's the point of answering your questions if you deny that Jesus' flesh was the same as all the rest of us?”

You are offering forum readers a personal religious theory.

The questions you were asked point out errors in your theory and interpretation underlying the creation of your theory. If your theory cannot deal with simple questions then your theory cannot achieve rational and logical support and it cannot take precedence over early Judeo-Christian doctrines (which could answer all of these questions very logically and rationally). Why should readers adopt your theory and your interpretation if your theory is illogical and irrational. Why should they abandon the early theory and interpretations that Jesus was sinless.

Just a quick correction : I have not denied that Jesus’ physical flesh was like our flesh. I have denied that Jesus (including his flesh) was sin-ful, or full of sin. I HAVE also denied that the flesh of a newborn infant is full of sin or sin-ful.

Your theory that sin literally resides in the toes and muscle and tendons, and “flesh” is very irrational and illogical since no one’s toes and muscle and tendons and “flesh” have a capability to sin. The toe is not the locus of moral decision nor is a toe morally competent to make ANY decision or to carry out any sin on it’s own.

Clear δρακειτωω
 
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moorea944

Well-Known Member
POST ONE OF TWO

1) CONFUSION OVER WHAT ONE BELIEVES INSIDE A DEBATE
Hi Mooprea944

I honestly apologize if I have put words in your mouth. No one deserves that. However, you agreed with LightofTruths theory which differs from your explanation.

LightofTruth has been consistent that HIS theory somehow actual sin in actual flesh, including Jesus’ flesh.

SO, when LightofTruth said “A new born baby has the same sinful flesh as every other person.” (post #212)
You responded "Yes, I agree." (post #213)
Once you agreed to his theory, your beliefs were bound to be conflated to some extent with his. You were NOT particularly clear that you did NOT believe a baby had sin in it’s flesh. Therefore, your complaint that you were misunderstood is less justifiable than if you had explained that you did NOT, actually, agree with LightofTruths theory.



2) CLEARS THEORY THAT ORIGINAL CHRISTIANITY IS MOST AUTHENTIC AND MORE RATIONAL AND LOGICAL THAN THAT OF LATER CHRISTIAN MOVEMENTS
Moorea944 says : “But anyhow.... I do like reading your theories though, it's very entertaining!!” (post #234)

My theory is that the earliest Judeo-Christians closest to the time of the original and authentic Christian movement represented the most authentic form of Christianity and, with very few exceptions, THEIR specific doctrines and theories and their interpretations of their text represent the clearest and most rational and most logical and most authentic form of Christianity. This as opposed to the multitude of later competing Christian movement with their specific doctrines and their varying and competing interpretations of the various versions of sacred texts in different languages.

To sum it up, My theory is that generally, the earliest christianity has greater clarity and is superior to the later Christian movements.


3) HISTORICAL AND LINGUISTIC CONTEXT IS IMPORTANT IN EXAMINING ANCIENT RELIGIOUS DOCUMENTS
a) LightofTruth said : “…the context explains how we are to understand the meaning. Ask any reputable Greek scholar and he will tell you that the context is what's most important when translating for proper understanding. (post #226)
That is my point as well. WHY are you allowed to take these principles out of ancient, historical context and apply your personal interpretation to them? Why not leave them in their original context?

b) LightofTruth said : There are many translations of Scripture which say "sinful flesh". Would you like me to list all of them?

Why?, you would simply be listing inaccurate translations. Even you, now admit “…it is more accurate to say "flesh of sin".” (LightofTruth, post @231) This is a good thing you have discovered.

When you looked up the Greek, you discovered what I told you about Greek was true. Perhaps now, you can consider there is something else about language that you either do not know or are not considering. Since we both agree that ancient, historical context is important to meaning, consider what it meant to Paul the HEBREW, when he referred to “flesh” and the Hebraisms associated with such words as “flesh”, “blood” etc.


4) CREATING MODERN THEOLOGIAL DOCTRINES AND THEORIES WITHOUT CONSIDERING LANGUAGE AND HISTORICAL CONTEXT

For example, LightofTruth quotes his corrected version of Romans 8:3 as “…God sent His son in the likeness of the “flesh of sin”. He then continues : "…and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:" LightofTruths interpretation and conclusion is that “It would be impossible for sin in the flesh to be condemned if there was no sin in the flesh of Jesus!


The historical-contextual mistakes of creating this theory on these words are multiple. Firstly, it is easy to see that Paul did not refer to “sin in the flesh OF JESUS”. That concept that Jesus has “sin in his flesh” is layered onto the text which does not have that concept in it.

Another historical-contextual mistake is not to consider what a phrase meant anciently and to the person who wrote the phrase. In early Judeo-Christian literature, there is a different balance between literal and symbolic that exists in in modern, non-hebrew readers than existed anciently. Paul was an ancient Hebrew, using ancient Hebraisms.

5) ANCIENT HEBRAISMS, “FLESH”, “FLESH AND BLOOD”, “FLESH OF SIN”, ETC.
Terms like “flesh and blood” and “Flesh of sin” were Hebraisms for “mankind” in mortality. In early Judeo Christian theology, Adam and Eve originally had glorious, immortal bodies. After the fall of Adam, they and their children had mortal bodies subject to illness and death. This mortal flesh was called “flesh of sin” as opposed to the sinless and glorified flesh their bodies had prior to the fall of Adam.

In early Judeo-Christianity, Adam originally had glorified flesh : “God formed Adam with His holy hands, in His own Image and Likeness and when the angels saw Adam's glorious appearance they were greatly moved by the beauty thereof. For they saw (Fol. 5a, col. 2) the image of his face burning with glorious splendor like the orb of the sun, and the light of his eyes was like the light of the sun, and the image of his body was like unto the sparkling of crystal ” (Cave of Treasures on Creation of Adam)

Jewish Haggadah describes this glory : "When Adam opened his eyes the first time…his admiration for the world surrounding him did not exceed the admiration all creatures conceived for Adam. They took him to be their creator, and they all came to offer his adoration. But he spoke : “Why do you come to worship me? Nay, you and I together will acknowledge the majesty and the might of him who has created us all. (The Haggadah - THE FALL OF ADAM AND EVE)

In Christian (vita) Adam and Eve text After they lost the glorified bodies and took on the "Flesh of sin” (i.e. mortal bodies they had after the transgression) eve says : “And at that very moment my eyes were opened and I knew that I was naked of the righteousness with which I had been clothed. 2 And I wept saying, ‘Why have you (satan) done this to me, that I have been estranged from my glory with which I was clothed?” This flesh she now had was the “flesh of sin” which all mankind then were born into.

The concept of being “clothed” in a garment of glory and loss of this garment and it’s replacement with a garment of sin is found throughout the early literature. Even the fall of Satan from heaven is cast in this same symbolism. It was said of Lucifer : “...he was cast out, and "Daiwâ" because he lost the apparel of his glory. And behold, from that time until the present day, he and all his hosts have been stripped of their apparel, and they go naked...” (Cave of Treasures, chapt on “The Revolt of Satan”)

Ginzberg noted that the haggadic interpretation of “naked” in Gen 3:7, 10 is that the first pair became aware that they were bare of good deeds. ( cf shab 14a; Meg 32a; GenR 19:6; PRE 14). This also, in view of other ancient Jewish and Christian writers asserting that Adam and Eve had garments and glorified bodies of light before the fall. However, it seems not so much as a bareness of good deeds, but rather a loss of “purity”, a loss of a “primal state” (as the christian Abbaton translator said it.) THIS is why the flesh they had after committing transgression was called “flesh of sin” as opposed to “glorified flesh” before the fall.

The loss of glorified “flesh” was cast in the symbolism of clothing. Thus, regarding Adam, Jewish haggadah says “he lost his celestial clothing .... in sorrow he was to earn his daily bread...” (The Haggadah - The Punishment). In similar symbolism, when describing immortal beings in heaven, apo Peter, an early Christian text says “The inhabitants of that place [heaven] were clad with the shining raiment of angels and their raiment was suitable to their place of habitation.” (The apocalypse of Peter). Early hymns similarly reflect this doctrines in their verses : “ I am clothed with a garment of light...and I am passed beyond the pain and anguish of [mortal] bodies" (Angad Roshnan - From the Parthian Hymn-Cycles - The Ship of God VIII)

Many example of such Hebraic symbols are found in early literature. For example, in the “Rechabite” vision of heaven, the heavenly individuals explain : “But we are not naked as you suppose, for we are covered with a covering of glory… we are covered with a stole of glory (similar to that) which clothed Adam and Eve before they sinned.” (History of the Rechabites 12:3)

In early Judeo-Christian tradition, before they sinned, Adam and Eve had “flesh of glory”, and after they sinned, they had “flesh of sin”. “Flesh of sin” was a Hebraism that simply described mortal “mankind” similar to the use of the Hebraism “flesh and blood”.

Flesh and blood” is another Hebraism that denotes mankind in general. The phrase “Flesh and blood hath not revealed it to thee” (of Matt 16:17) simply means “no person hath revealed it to thee.” When Paul points out that “…we fight not with flesh and blood only” (Eph 6:12) the next phrase clarifies the meaning ”the idolatrous rulers and other wicked men of the present age…”

Rabbinic Jews still use this hebraism nowadays. There are multiple examples in the Mishneh Torah that use this Hebraism. For examples (from Sefer Ahavah, Berachot) it is taught that “ One who sees a gentile wise man should recite the blessing: Blessed are You, God, our Lord, King of the universe, who has given from His wisdom to flesh and blood.” And upon seeing a Gentile king, one “…should recite the blessing: Blessed are You, God, our Lord, King of the universe, who has given from His glory to flesh and blood."


POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS




Yes, I did agree and I still do. I think our words, though the same, have different understands with us all. I do believe that babies has the same "sinful flesh" as everyone else. That DOES NOT mean that they have literal sin in their bodies. It means that they have the same "nature" prone to sin. And babies will someday sin when they grow older.
"Sin in the flesh" does not mean that is actual sin in someone's body, it talking about a nature that is prone to sin.
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) REGARDING THE CLAIM THAT EITHER JESUS OR A NEWBORN INFANT HAVE "SIN-FUL" FLESH.

LightofTruth claims : A new born baby has the same sinful flesh as every other person.” (post #212)
Moorea944 responds to this theory : "Yes, I agree." (POST #213)



2) COMPETING PERSONAL DEFINITIONS OF THE ANCIENT USE OF THE WORD "SIN;-FUL"
Moorea944
says : When I say "sin in the flesh" or 'sin nature", I'm not saying that he actually had sin in his body. That's not what i'm saying. "Sin in the flesh" is a saying of a body or nature that was capable of sinning. (#238)
Moorea944 clarified : "What I said was, a baby eventually has the "nature and that's from Adam" to someday sin. A baby doesnt sin or knows anything about sin.... But it does have a nature to eventually sin someday... (post #232)
LightofTruth says : "....sin in the flesh" does not mean a person is capable of sinning but rather sin dwells in the flesh itself just as Paul says.”


3) WHAT DID THE TERM "SIN-FUL FLESH" OR "FLESH OF SIN" MEAN TO THE ANCIENT JUDEO-CHRISTIANS WHO USED THE TERM?


Hi Moorea944

I agree with you that all morally competent individuals in this life have the "capacity" to sin. I also agree with you that Neither Jesus, nor newborn infants either committed sin, nor is there any sin in their flesh.

HOWEVER, IF you are theorizing that "sin-ful flesh" or "flesh of sin" of Romans 8:3, simply meant "the capacity to someday sin" in ancient Judeo-Christian usage, then can you provide readers with supporting historical data from the early Judeo-Christian literature that demonstrates your claim?

Clear
δρακφιακω
 
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LightofTruth

Well-Known Member
POST ONE OF TWO

1) CONFUSION OVER WHAT ONE BELIEVES INSIDE A DEBATE
Hi Mooprea944

I honestly apologize if I have put words in your mouth. No one deserves that. However, you agreed with LightofTruths theory which differs from your explanation.

LightofTruth has been consistent that HIS theory somehow actual sin in actual flesh, including Jesus’ flesh.

SO, when LightofTruth said “A new born baby has the same sinful flesh as every other person.” (post #212)
You responded "Yes, I agree." (post #213)
Once you agreed to his theory, your beliefs were bound to be conflated to some extent with his. You were NOT particularly clear that you did NOT believe a baby had sin in it’s flesh. Therefore, your complaint that you were misunderstood is less justifiable than if you had explained that you did NOT, actually, agree with LightofTruths theory.



2) CLEARS THEORY THAT ORIGINAL CHRISTIANITY IS MOST AUTHENTIC AND MORE RATIONAL AND LOGICAL THAN THAT OF LATER CHRISTIAN MOVEMENTS
Moorea944 says : “But anyhow.... I do like reading your theories though, it's very entertaining!!” (post #234)

My theory is that the earliest Judeo-Christians closest to the time of the original and authentic Christian movement represented the most authentic form of Christianity and, with very few exceptions, THEIR specific doctrines and theories and their interpretations of their text represent the clearest and most rational and most logical and most authentic form of Christianity. This as opposed to the multitude of later competing Christian movement with their specific doctrines and their varying and competing interpretations of the various versions of sacred texts in different languages.

To sum it up, My theory is that generally, the earliest christianity has greater clarity and is superior to the later Christian movements.


3) HISTORICAL AND LINGUISTIC CONTEXT IS IMPORTANT IN EXAMINING ANCIENT RELIGIOUS DOCUMENTS
a) LightofTruth said : “…the context explains how we are to understand the meaning. Ask any reputable Greek scholar and he will tell you that the context is what's most important when translating for proper understanding. (post #226)
That is my point as well. WHY are you allowed to take these principles out of ancient, historical context and apply your personal interpretation to them? Why not leave them in their original context?

b) LightofTruth said : There are many translations of Scripture which say "sinful flesh". Would you like me to list all of them?

Why?, you would simply be listing inaccurate translations. Even you, now admit “…it is more accurate to say "flesh of sin".” (LightofTruth, post @231) This is a good thing you have discovered.

When you looked up the Greek, you discovered what I told you about Greek was true. Perhaps now, you can consider there is something else about language that you either do not know or are not considering. Since we both agree that ancient, historical context is important to meaning, consider what it meant to Paul the HEBREW, when he referred to “flesh” and the Hebraisms associated with such words as “flesh”, “blood” etc.


4) CREATING MODERN THEOLOGIAL DOCTRINES AND THEORIES WITHOUT CONSIDERING LANGUAGE AND HISTORICAL CONTEXT

For example, LightofTruth quotes his corrected version of Romans 8:3 as “…God sent His son in the likeness of the “flesh of sin”. He then continues : "…and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:" LightofTruths interpretation and conclusion is that “It would be impossible for sin in the flesh to be condemned if there was no sin in the flesh of Jesus!


The historical-contextual mistakes of creating this theory on these words are multiple. Firstly, it is easy to see that Paul did not refer to “sin in the flesh OF JESUS”. That concept that Jesus has “sin in his flesh” is layered onto the text which does not have that concept in it.

Another historical-contextual mistake is not to consider what a phrase meant anciently and to the person who wrote the phrase. In early Judeo-Christian literature, there is a different balance between literal and symbolic that exists in in modern, non-hebrew readers than existed anciently. Paul was an ancient Hebrew, using ancient Hebraisms.

5) ANCIENT HEBRAISMS, “FLESH”, “FLESH AND BLOOD”, “FLESH OF SIN”, ETC.
Terms like “flesh and blood” and “Flesh of sin” were Hebraisms for “mankind” in mortality. In early Judeo Christian theology, Adam and Eve originally had glorious, immortal bodies. After the fall of Adam, they and their children had mortal bodies subject to illness and death. This mortal flesh was called “flesh of sin” as opposed to the sinless and glorified flesh their bodies had prior to the fall of Adam.

In early Judeo-Christianity, Adam originally had glorified flesh : “God formed Adam with His holy hands, in His own Image and Likeness and when the angels saw Adam's glorious appearance they were greatly moved by the beauty thereof. For they saw (Fol. 5a, col. 2) the image of his face burning with glorious splendor like the orb of the sun, and the light of his eyes was like the light of the sun, and the image of his body was like unto the sparkling of crystal ” (Cave of Treasures on Creation of Adam)

Jewish Haggadah describes this glory : "When Adam opened his eyes the first time…his admiration for the world surrounding him did not exceed the admiration all creatures conceived for Adam. They took him to be their creator, and they all came to offer his adoration. But he spoke : “Why do you come to worship me? Nay, you and I together will acknowledge the majesty and the might of him who has created us all. (The Haggadah - THE FALL OF ADAM AND EVE)

In Christian (vita) Adam and Eve text After they lost the glorified bodies and took on the "Flesh of sin” (i.e. mortal bodies they had after the transgression) eve says : “And at that very moment my eyes were opened and I knew that I was naked of the righteousness with which I had been clothed. 2 And I wept saying, ‘Why have you (satan) done this to me, that I have been estranged from my glory with which I was clothed?” This flesh she now had was the “flesh of sin” which all mankind then were born into.

The concept of being “clothed” in a garment of glory and loss of this garment and it’s replacement with a garment of sin is found throughout the early literature. Even the fall of Satan from heaven is cast in this same symbolism. It was said of Lucifer : “...he was cast out, and "Daiwâ" because he lost the apparel of his glory. And behold, from that time until the present day, he and all his hosts have been stripped of their apparel, and they go naked...” (Cave of Treasures, chapt on “The Revolt of Satan”)

Ginzberg noted that the haggadic interpretation of “naked” in Gen 3:7, 10 is that the first pair became aware that they were bare of good deeds. ( cf shab 14a; Meg 32a; GenR 19:6; PRE 14). This also, in view of other ancient Jewish and Christian writers asserting that Adam and Eve had garments and glorified bodies of light before the fall. However, it seems not so much as a bareness of good deeds, but rather a loss of “purity”, a loss of a “primal state” (as the christian Abbaton translator said it.) THIS is why the flesh they had after committing transgression was called “flesh of sin” as opposed to “glorified flesh” before the fall.

The loss of glorified “flesh” was cast in the symbolism of clothing. Thus, regarding Adam, Jewish haggadah says “he lost his celestial clothing .... in sorrow he was to earn his daily bread...” (The Haggadah - The Punishment). In similar symbolism, when describing immortal beings in heaven, apo Peter, an early Christian text says “The inhabitants of that place [heaven] were clad with the shining raiment of angels and their raiment was suitable to their place of habitation.” (The apocalypse of Peter). Early hymns similarly reflect this doctrines in their verses : “ I am clothed with a garment of light...and I am passed beyond the pain and anguish of [mortal] bodies" (Angad Roshnan - From the Parthian Hymn-Cycles - The Ship of God VIII)

Many example of such Hebraic symbols are found in early literature. For example, in the “Rechabite” vision of heaven, the heavenly individuals explain : “But we are not naked as you suppose, for we are covered with a covering of glory… we are covered with a stole of glory (similar to that) which clothed Adam and Eve before they sinned.” (History of the Rechabites 12:3)

In early Judeo-Christian tradition, before they sinned, Adam and Eve had “flesh of glory”, and after they sinned, they had “flesh of sin”. “Flesh of sin” was a Hebraism that simply described mortal “mankind” similar to the use of the Hebraism “flesh and blood”.

Flesh and blood” is another Hebraism that denotes mankind in general. The phrase “Flesh and blood hath not revealed it to thee” (of Matt 16:17) simply means “no person hath revealed it to thee.” When Paul points out that “…we fight not with flesh and blood only” (Eph 6:12) the next phrase clarifies the meaning ”the idolatrous rulers and other wicked men of the present age…”

Rabbinic Jews still use this hebraism nowadays. There are multiple examples in the Mishneh Torah that use this Hebraism. For examples (from Sefer Ahavah, Berachot) it is taught that “ One who sees a gentile wise man should recite the blessing: Blessed are You, God, our Lord, King of the universe, who has given from His wisdom to flesh and blood.” And upon seeing a Gentile king, one “…should recite the blessing: Blessed are You, God, our Lord, King of the universe, who has given from His glory to flesh and blood."


POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS
I'm not interested in going outside of what is considered sacred scripture. Commentaries are just that.

The idea that Adam had an immortal body is rejected by Paul. And also by the fact that Adam's body returned to the dust it was made from.
 

LightofTruth

Well-Known Member
A body that is created immortal is a body that is not subject to corruption or decay. Only the bodies of resurrected or translated persons are NOT subject to corruption or decay.

Was Jesus' body dead? If it were, then his body was not immortal. And it would be absurd to say that he was raised from the dead if he were not dead.

Jesus was NOT immortal!

After Jesus was raised from the dead, Paul says that "death has no more dominion over him" and also that Jesus prayed to Him who could save him from death.

If death had dominion over Jesus, then Jesus was NOT immortal.And he was not immortal because he was a son of Adam. No son of Adam, nor Adam himself was created immortal.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
LightofTruth said : "I'm not interested in going outside of what is considered sacred scripture..." (post #245)


I agree with you that you do not seem to be interested in certain areas of historical data. However, keep in mind that many forum readers are NOT like you.

1) NOT ALL INDIVIDUALS WANT TO CONTINUE IN THE CURRENT LEVEL OF KNOWLEDGE AND IGNORANCE OF RELIGIOUS HISTORY AND LANGUAGE

Not all individuals take the same posturing regarding learning that you are taking. Many forum readers WANT to educate themselves regarding historical meaning of biblical text (as opposed to a personal interpretation of text) and who WANT to educate themselves regarding historical biblical language (as opposed to creating personal and somewhat arbitrary meanings to ancient language) and who WANT to know what the most authentic form of Christian teachings are (as opposed to being satisfied with simply creating their own doctrines or adopting one of many modern Christian movements with modern dogma).

One does not necessarily have to go outside of their current level of knowledge to consider there is something they might not know. I mentioned that σαρκι was a Hebraism that did not always mean literal “flesh”, but also meant “mankind” or “the world” in which mankind lives, “mortality”, etc. Yet another example among the many I’ve already given is 2 Cor 10:3 where Paul says “Εν σαρκι γαρ περιπατοθντες ου κατα σαρκα στρατευομεθα”. Paul uses “Sarki” to mean “the world” in this case. “For though we live in the world, we do not wage war as the world does.” (NIV). Many other versions render it “For though we live in the flesh….”. The point here is that Doug Moo and his group of NIV translators chose to render “sarxi” as “the world” because they were aware of the underlying Hebraism and felt it was more appropriate and less confusing for readers in this case than to render the text with the word “flesh”. To use your literal interpretation of “flesh” as muscle and tendons of our body in this case would be silly. To the ancient Hebrew, “Flesh” often did not always mean literal “flesh”.

The concept that any of us can avoid “going outside” of scripture is naïve since you are applying meaning to text that does not come from the text itself. ALL of us apply personal meaning to data we are exposed to and once we apply personal meaning to a text, we HAVE gone "outside" of the text.

THE CONSEQUENCES OF IGNORANCE AND THE EFFECT OF IGNORANCE ON OUR THEORIES AND BELIEFS
Another problem with satisfaction with current level of knowledge is that IF you will NOT take the time and effort to study history and language then you must deal with the consequences of ignorance in those areas of study.

For example, your initial quote of Romans 8 was incorrect in two places. YET, you based your theory partly on these errors. This passed incorrect assumptions on to your theory and created defects in your theory. Your lack of linguistic knowledge regarding “flesh / σαρκι” caused yet another error that is passed on to the theory that you created. If you remember, your theory could not answer a single one of the questions it raised in any coherent, logical manner and it lacked significant data compared to the earlier Christian doctrine and earlier interpretation.


THE MORTAL BODY RETURNS TO THE DUST

LightofTruth said : “The idea that Adam had an immortal body is rejected by Paul. And also by the fact that Adam's body returned to the dust it was made from.”

You are confused. The earliest Christian literature believed Adam INITIALLY was created with a Glorified, perfect body. See posts 241 and 243 for multiple examples of this specific point from the early literature.

Instead, It was, in their worldview, only AFTER the fall of Adam that he became subject to death with a mortal body. This, “post” fall body was the body Paul referred to as mortal and it was this mortal body which “returned to the dust” in early Christian worldviews.

Initially, Adam was created “sin-less” and not “sin-full” in early tradition. Similarly, Jesus was “sin-less” and not “sin-ful” in early christianity. Similarly, a New born infant was “sin-less” and had not sinned nor were they capable of sinning as a new-born, but, as @moorea944 correctly pointed out, the infant would, presumably, become capable of sin if moral competence developed later.

If you actually have any data and logic to give readers some sort of reason to support your theory instead of the Ancient Christianity, you could offer that to forum readers at this point.

In any case, good luck with your spiritual journey LightofTruth.

Clear
δρακνεακω
 
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Muffled

Jesus in me
No..... that's because the bible says that God gave everything to Jesus..... Your making it into something else because you want it to mean the Trinity.



LOL!!! Sorry.....

I believe you should explain what the something else is. I don't believe God is less great than me and I give gifts to myself.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
giphy.gif


What is written in the Bible cannot be changed.

2 John 7 Common English Bible (CEB)
Many deceivers have gone into the world who do not confess that Jesus Christ came as a human being. This kind of person is the deceiver and the antichrist.

The Bible clearly describes people who refuse to confess that Jesus is a human being as
the deceiver and the antichrist
It is written in the Bible and no one can change it.

2 John 7 Good News Translation (GNT)
Many deceivers have gone out over the world, people who do not acknowledge that Jesus Christ came as a human being. Such a person is a deceiver and the Enemy of Christ.

They do not acknowledge that Jesus Christ is a human being
And if they do not acknowledge that fact what do they acknowledge Jesus Christ as...
a god
And the bible records such people as a deceiver and the enemy of Christ

2 John 7 International Children’s Bible (ICB)
Many false teachers are in the world now. They refuse to say that Jesus Christ came to earth and became a man. Anyone who refuses to say this is a false teacher and an enemy of Christ.

They are many and they are called false teacher.
They refuse to say that Jesus Christ is a man
And if they refuse to say Jesus Christ is a man what do they say about him?
A lot actually, one is being god and another one is being a manifestation of god
What does the bible say about them?
False teacher and an enemy of Christ.

Are these recorded in the Bible?
Yes they are.
It is up to you to choose a side - what would that be?

I beiieve I am on God;s side and that you should try it sometime.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Hi @LightofTruth
Why do you say Jesus had "sinful flesh"? Typically, Christians claim that Jesus was NOT "sinful", nor did he sin, rather they usually claim he was morally perfect. What sort of sin did Christs "sinful" flesh cause Jesus to commit?

Clear
δρεισεσεω

I believe it did not wish to be wracked by pain and so opposed God's will in the garden of Gethsemane.
 

moorea944

Well-Known Member
I believe you should explain what the something else is. I don't believe God is less great than me and I give gifts to myself.


Well, you had mentioned that, "It is illogical to say that God giving everything to Jesus means that Jesus is not God." My point was that, first of all, Jesus is not God. If Jesus was God, then why would God have to give Jesus anything..... Esp, if he's God and co-equal...

Doesnt scripture tell us that there is only one God? Why are you saying that, that is wrong!... So the "something else" means that your taking scripture into the wrong direction.

Plus, I really dont understand what you said, "God is less great than me and I give gifts to myself." Less great?.... "I give gifts to myself"? Not sure what your saying here........
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
REGARDING A “SINFUL” VERSUS A “SINLESS” JESUS.
Clear asked : LightofTruth : Why do you say Jesus had "sinful flesh"? .... What sort of sin did Christs "sinful" flesh cause Jesus to commit?
Muffled said : “I believe it did not wish to be wracked by pain and so opposed God's will in the garden of Gethsemane.” #251


Hi @Muffled :

Does your claim above refer to Luke22:42? The text there has Jesus praying to the father, saying :
If thou [God] art willing, remove this cup from me, nevertheless, not my will, but thine be done.

Are you saying this prayer meant Jesus was opposing the Father?
What part of this prayer of Jesus do you think was sinful?
Is there something about not wanting to be “wracked by pain” that is a sin in this case?
In what specific way are you suggesting Jesus was opposing the Father?

Can you clarify?

Thanks in advance for any clarification you can offer

Clear
φιτζδρτζω
 
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Muffled

Jesus in me
Well, you had mentioned that, "It is illogical to say that God giving everything to Jesus means that Jesus is not God." My point was that, first of all, Jesus is not God. If Jesus was God, then why would God have to give Jesus anything..... Esp, if he's God and co-equal...

Doesnt scripture tell us that there is only one God? Why are you saying that, that is wrong!... So the "something else" means that your taking scripture into the wrong direction.

Plus, I really dont understand what you said, "God is less great than me and I give gifts to myself." Less great?.... "I give gifts to myself"? Not sure what your saying here........

I believe that point won't wash because there is a large number of scriptural verses that indicate He is.

I believe it is because an incarnation does not automatically have everything God does. God in Jesus does but that doesn't mean the mind of Jesus does since that is part of the body.

I believe so.

I believe I am not saying that is wrong.

I believe you are saying the Trinity is something else. I am not. I am saying the Trinity is God.

I believe it means if I can do something like give gifts to myself then God can do that also.


 
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