No. Does not Genesis 1:1 clearly state that -in the beginning -the heaven was created before the earth?
It does not. Genesis 1:1 reads "בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית בָּרָ֣א אֱלֹהִ֑ים אֵ֥ת הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם וְאֵ֥ת הָאָֽרֶץ" ("In a first/initial moment, God/deity created the heavens and the earth"). The portion typically translated with something like "In the beginning" is בְּרֵאשִׁית. It is a prepositional phrase or PP (in Hebrew, prepositions are often affixes or clitics, i.e., they are attached to lexemes not written independently), with an indefinite noun. Thus, strictly speaking, any translation of the form
in the beginning is wrong. However, translations always involve inaccuracies and information loss and trying to convey the indefinite nature of the noun here would probably be more misleading than just making it definite. The PP not only starts the passage, it sets up its context. It thus "qualifies" or "ranges over" the entirety of Genesis 1:1. It does assign an order to the creation of "אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֵת הָאָרֶץ".
Time in Hebrew is generally extremely complicated. There are no tenses. However, like every language I know certain lexemes, particle, clitics, adpositions, and/or affixes can make life easier by semantically indicating notions about time (e.g., in English we have words like "begin", "start", "finish", "before", "after", etc.). Here, "בְּרֵאשִׁית" makes the answer to this question easy as we don't need to look at the aspect of the verb and the context to determine tense, we have a PP
telling us that there was an initial moment of creation by god, followed by description of this creation, and NOT a statement that god first created one thing and then another.