I see absolutely no philosophical preconditions.
Which is probably the cause of your misunderstanding.
Not sure why some people seem to think it is some kind of a problem to note that science is underpinned by numerous philosophical assumptions as if it were some kind of weakness rather than an unavoidable aspect of human cognition.
Do you believe views on epistemology are irrelevant to science for example?
Scientific advanced did develop independently and parallel in China as in the west before the Tang Dynasty.
Modern science emerged in Western Europe in the 17th C. Calling everything that came before 'science' then lumping it in with technology and what animals do, etc. is why you don't see the role of natural philosophy in the development of
modern science, or that it relied on philosophical preconditions relating the the nature of reality, the nature of cognition, the desirability and attainability of knowledge, etc.
The Ancient Greeks, for example, believed in the power of reason to determine truth absent empirical experimentation, other societies have considered the universe to be unintelligible as it is chaotic. When you deny the role of philosophy you argue that such societies were equally likely to develop modern science as 17th C Europeans. Science is not a 'neutral' activity but one which assumes many things axiomatically.
China was technologically advanced but did not have a scientific revolution because it only saw value in technologies with practical benefit. This is the natural human tendency to develop technologies and something that is not unique to humans.
The scientific revolution required value to be placed in the search for knowledge
without practical benefit though. Experimental natural philosophy (i.e. what we now consider to be science) was mocked by many people when it first emerged precisely because it had no practical benefit. It was seen as some ivory tower intellectual hand-waving exercise. The land of Laputa in
Gulliver's travels (written in the early 18th C) is a satire on exactly this point.
What you call philosophical underpinnings came in response to changes and advances in science.
The problem with this line of argumentation is that what we now call science didn't exist. The field was natural philosophy.
Newton, for example, was a natural philosopher and trying to retroactively separate his natural philosophy from his science is an anachronistic and artificial attempt to distort history. Even the term scientist only appeared in the 18th C.
What you have failed to provide is specific advances in philosophy preceed and guide scientific advances.
To repeat: "The key evolution was the idea that true knowledge could only be gained through experimentation rather than reasoning about nature, and this evolution was in the field of natural philosophy."
Are you saying this was irrelevant to the development of modern science or that this is nothing to do with philosophy?