For the point being made, it doesn't really matter what the specific examples are tbh, as you know, they are generally minor. However, if the 1st order meaning/literal denotation is not agreed exactly upon in a singular form, then why should
nth order meanings/exegetical interpretations exist in a single form?
Just like 'orthodox' interpretations of the text, 'orthodox' readings of the literal text took centuries to emerge rather than being apparent from the earliest days.
Some examples though:
- (Q. 7:57) wa-huwa ‿lladhī yursilu ‿r-rīḥa/‿r-riyāḥa nushuran/nushran/ nashran.2 All Readers read nushuran or nushran or nashran (to bring forth clouds) except A, who read bushran (to bring good tidings). Al-Ṭabarī com- mented that although the meaning of the verse was still convincing, he preferred to not adopt it for its deviation from the majority of the other Readers.3
- – (Q. 6:94) laqad taqaṭṭaʿa baynakum.4 All Readers read taqaṭṭaʿa baynukum except N, K, and A → Ḥafṣ, who read baynakum. The variance is the differ- ence of a case ending but between understanding bayn either as an adverb (bayna; amongst you) or a noun (al-bayn; connection, relationship).5
– (Q. 43:19) ع�ى�د� is a very interesting case of disconnected variants. A, AA, H, and K read wa-jaʿalū ‿l-malāʾikata ‿lladhīna hum ʿibādu ‿r-raḥmāni (and they have made the angels, who are themselves servants of the All-merciful ...). On the other hand, IK, N, and IA read wa-jaʿalū ‿l-malāʾikata ‿lladhīna hum ʿinda ‿r-raḥmāni (and they have made the angels, who are in the company of/with the All-merciful ...).
S Nasser - The 2nd canonisation of the Quran