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can you proove there isn't a deity?

Sees

Dragonslayer
Not sure what the antecedent of "this" is. What I said was plainly written. Paul was a Hellenic Jew, and the most ancient Christian texts were in Greek. I don't think anyone disputes its Hellenic Greek origins, and I'm not going to waste my time trying to debate that point. Similarly, the influence of Aristotle and (particularly) Plato on orthodoxy are well known. Pythagoras gave rise to the monastic tradition that Christians adopted. I'm pretty sure you know these things, so I'm not sure what you are questioning.

To me it definitely seems a Greek-Jewish blend and later Greek-Jewish-Roman. Basically starting as a Platonic mystery/gnosis cult with Jewish pantheon. I don't think Philo was the only one playing with blending. Several Church Fathers stated the importance of greek philosophy - how it was inspired and helps to truly understand Christ.
 

Ouroboros

Coincidentia oppositorum
Wasn't the Platonic influence a later product in neo-platonic era?

With that said (or asked), Paul must've had some Greek philosophy influence since he was referencing Epimenides in one of his letters (unless it wasn't his, of course).

And besides that, the concept of Logos seems very Greek in Gospel of John.
 

Enai de a lukal

Well-Known Member
Wasn't the Platonic influence a later product in neo-platonic era?
At the very least, Platonic epistemology became absorbed into Christian thought relatively early on, and persisted until... well, it still persists to this day. Clearly you had adaptations of neo-Platonic metaphysics as well, but that was hardly unique to Christianity- although there is something essentially Platonic about the Christian metaphysical picture, even at a bare minimum.

But in particular, we can see Plato's unfortunate error with respect to his bifurcation of knowledge and belief/opinion inherited in all varieties of fideism; that belief, as opposed to knowledge, is entirely undisciplined and admits of no criteria- the only difference being that whereas Plato esteemed knowledge above belief for this very reason, Christianity reverses this and values belief over knowledge. But this isn't even entirely peculiar to fideism- it sort of underlies many Christian conceptions of faith, including, arguably, the Biblical one.
 
i notice some people who are 100% convinced there can't be any kind of deity. but how can you be so certain? rather than just not be so sure.
what solid proof do you have there is no chance of there being some kind of deity that maybe you are just not aware of?

Just show me the deity and I will be convinced. Why are the thousands of deities throughout history so invisible?
 

Sees

Dragonslayer
Wasn't the Platonic influence a later product in neo-platonic era?

With that said (or asked), Paul must've had some Greek philosophy influence since he was referencing Epimenides in one of his letters (unless it wasn't his, of course).

And besides that, the concept of Logos seems very Greek in Gospel of John.

I think Greek philosophy was influencing Jews probably couple hundred years before Jesus' time....perhaps vice versa. I don't remember seeing anything certain on it though. Philo was half century earlier but then again some hold the theory that Jesus lived earlier than commonly thought.
 

Quirkybird

Member
No one can prove or disprove the existence of a deity. However, in my opinion, whilst it is just possible one could exist outside of time and space, I very much doubt any human is in contact with it.
 

Enai de a lukal

Well-Known Member
No one can prove or disprove the existence of a deity. However, in my opinion, whilst it is just possible one could exist outside of time and space, I very much doubt any human is in contact with it.
What does "exist outside time and space" mean? Sounds to me alot like "north of the north pole"- i.e. nonsense. To exist is to be subject to various relations- causal, temporal, physical relations. To not be subject to any such relations- to be "outside space and time"- is to not exist. If this is accurate- and it passes the smell test at least- then to "exist outside of space and time" is contradictory, no less than being a "married bachelor". :shrug:
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Not sure what the antecedent of "this" is.
The sentence I quoted.

What I said was plainly written

It seems to be so, but as it is wrong I asked for evidence.

Paul was a Hellenic Jew

Apart from the fact that this meant he spoke Greek (and could write a bit too; most of his letters were likely dictated as he indicates in one that it is he who is writing a particular portion), where is the influence of Greek philosophy and "especially Plato" in 1st century Christian texts?


and the most ancient Christian texts were in Greek
Very true. However, the "most ancient Christian texts" mean only that we are aware of certain aspects of the movement through these texts, not that they were Hellenic. Also, the texts themselves (despite the language in which they were written) attest to a Semitic origins, as we find in them both with and without translation/explanation Semitic words as well as phrases that have meaning only in a Hebraic/Aramaic context and not the Greek expressions we have now.

I don't think anyone disputes its Hellenic Greek origins
Virtually everybody does. The most thorough, systematic, and persistent attempt to dispute this was from scholarship in and around Nazi controlled Germany.

Similarly, the influence of Aristotle and (particularly) Plato on orthodoxy are well known.

Absolutely. They shaped Christianity in ways that rival (perhaps surpass) Jewish scriptures. Of course they did so in the centuries after virtually every NT text (from Paul's letters to the gospels) had already been written. Our first manuscript evidence of John predates the influences you speak of.

Pythagoras gave rise to the monastic tradition that Christians adopted
If Pythagoras existed, then he didn't. And the Pythagoreans didn't either.
I'm pretty sure you know these things, so I'm not sure what you are questioning.
The accuracy of everything you said.
 
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1robin

Christian/Baptist
Personally, I'm of the opinion that the best conclusions to draw from statistics is only what they tell you.
Statistics are notoriously hard to use and constantly used improperly. However some must and do use them appropriately.

Given your attitude towards them you will never be able to work in insurance or the medical fields. They must use statistics correctly and must accurately make predictions from them or they either go bankrupt or demand a government bailout. All of academia, law, historical methodology, and every day decisions extrapolate from out best guesses about what we know to what we do not know. You do it your self unless you are some new a weird form of animal no one is familiar with. That makes what you did here a tactic not a method. It appears you did not want to conclude what was inconvenient for you and also did not want to have to defend a lack of doing so. You took another route. You denied the validity of valid concepts to avoid their implications. That tactic is an attempt to avoid debate so I have nothing further to add at this time
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
The results show most Christians are not spirit-filled, super believers who have experienced God and/or Jesus. Only with certain denominations is there 85% or more Christians who believe the Bible is truly the Word of God.
What results? Did you post a study I missed somewhere? How in the world would anyone test this? Is there some spiritual litmus paper I am unaware of? The thing is I do not even need a fraction of the extremely conservative numbers I have given. You can (based on nothing what ever) half them, quarter them, divide them by 10, or even take their square root and you are still left with a data set so large you cannot (by any rational means) diminish their significance.

The ones who are most certain of their beliefs are the elderly and Mormons and JW's.
The elderly, where did you get that arbitrary data set? I did not mention certainty of a belief. I am not even talking about doctrine or intellectual agreement with a proposition. I am talking about those that claim to have been born again by a sovereign and unmistakable act of God. There does not exist a similar claim to experience of even a meaningful fraction of the numbers Christianity has. That is the point, not the certainty of left handed, red haired, short people in a parable or teaching.

The whole point was the argument that Christians are testimony to the truth of the existence and realness of their God. Their experience and convictions are used as proofs by you and others. We discussed before that Christians are not spirit-filled super-believers but you disagreed and said most are.
Find any claim where I made numbers equivalent to proven fact. I always use them as strong indicators in the sufficiency of evidence as they should be and are constantly used to do in every form of discourse in academia. In the equation that determines what we believe it is only a small part. It is an extremely well established, clearly indicative, and substantial part of the equation but merely one part among many.

I have studied no other theological issue as much as salvation. I have been a prayer counselor for years. I have been asked to write at least three papers on it. I have read more books than I can count on it specifically. I claim only a few clear miracles in my experience. Three of the approx. 12 or so were confirmations of my experience and beliefs in salvation. From all this including theological doctrines, claims, and history I conclude these approximations.

1. Protestants contain approx. 70% of believers that make a claim to an experience with God. Being born again. I am not including Mormons here because they are a weird and very small group.
2. Catholics contain approx. 40% of believers that claim the same.

Even if you halved my informed estimates you are still dealing with numbers so huge and so relatively incomparable to any other theological group that they produce indications that allow no dismissal.

I found several sites that support my data but I could not copy their tables correctly. However I think what goes into my numbers is far more substantial than any one set of data for any table anyway.

They gave:
1. Evangelicals: 77%
2. orthodox: 33%
3. Catholics: 45%

All the data results in billons since Christ that claim to have experienced God.





Truth is most people who are not elderly in the U.S. and Europe are not very strong in religious beliefs. Most are culturally religious and just kind of inherited it from family. No religious group or denomination is more certain of any supernatural belief and moral principles than the average Joe who claims no religion or belief in the Bible. Mormons and JW's tend to be the exception and have higher rates of participation in childhood religious education, scripture reading, daily prayer, and proselytizing.
Truth is that none of this has anything to do with what I claimed.

1. I made no claim about certainty concerning doctrinal claims. I do not care how certain a person is that the ten commandments are true, a fig tree instantly withered in the 1st century, or whether our primary duty is to love God with all our heart. I am not even talking directly about historical events.
2. My claim was that billions claim to have spiritually experienced God.
3. That claim is no less significant if no Christian who ever claimed it displayed some arbitrary level of commitment you have invented out of this air.
4. Experience is not a cultural product.
5. Cultural norms do not produce a born again experience. They produce church attendance, crosses around necks, and affiliation statistics. None of which I was discussing.

None of what you said has anything to do with my claims. Sometimes I get the distinct impression that those who have not experienced God have such an aversion to anyone having done so they just cannot understand what the nature of an experience claim is. Think of it this way.

Billions claim to have:
1. Had an experience of which no natural explanation exists.
2. They arrived at this experience by using the Gospels as a road map.
3. The Gospels say to do X and you will receive Y. They did X and received Y.
4. No previous experience and no expectation lined with what occurred.
5. I have never known anyone who claimed to have experienced God who showed no signs of the experiences effect. Some had far greater signs (George Forman and Johnny Cash for instance had radically changed lives nothing else explains), some had less noticeable signs. None of them had an experience that produced no effects and did not radically change their world views.
6. There exists no other comparable group in any faith that makes similar claims with even a meaningful fraction of the numbers. Most do not even contain a doctrine that would allow the claim. There is no born again experience in Islam, Baha'i, or Hinduism, and it has another name and is very restricted in Buddhism.

Account for our experiences as they exist. It is a waste of time to distort them into something that is convenient for you (like a certainty about doctrines, or a mistaken natural event).
 

AmbiguousGuy

Well-Known Member
Find any claim where I made numbers equivalent to proven fact. I always use them as strong indicators in the sufficiency of evidence as they should be and are constantly used to do in every form of discourse in academia.

Last I heard, about twice as many Americans support some form of abortion as those who oppose all abortion.

A strong indicator of the sufficiency of evidence that abortion is right, I guess?
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
I don't get it. You are denying that Hutus are Christian?

Or denying that they performed the most horrendous act of genocide in modern history?

I deny anyone not born again is a Christian, so did Christ. I would also deny that anyone is acting in God's place when they betray all of God's teachings.

If you are referring to Rwanda's 800,000 deaths is not even in the top 20 genocides. So even if the Hutu were Christians (instead of an ethnic group which they actually are). Even if they were acting consistently with a single scripture in the Bible (instead of against them all). That would still not be an example of a worst genocide in history, not even close. Your claim is still as wrong as it always was.

The three examples I gave.

1. Hitler: 50 million total including 6 million plus direct genocidal murders.
2. Stalin: 20 million, including approximately 10 million genocides.
3. Muslims in India: Estimates range from a few ten millions to 60 million plus.

By genocide I mean an act of murder against a group based on ideological, theological, or racial ideas.

You have not even come close with your inaccurate "supposedly" Christian stats.
 

Ouroboros

Coincidentia oppositorum
They gave:
1. Evangelicals: 77%
2. orthodox: 33%
3. Catholics: 45%

All the data results in billons since Christ that claim to have experienced God.
That's not what the study your referring to says.

It gives you the number of followers of particular religions, not what experiences they've had.

You're extrapolating information that's not there. Somehow you think you're representing all those people, and that your experiences matches all their experiences. You need to get out more and meet more people of different denominations. It's not as black-and-white as you make it out to be.
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
In other words, you're refusing to give arguments in lieu of fallacious appeals to authority. Can't say I didn't try to help you here.
Let me ask a question or two.

1. In what way was my use of numbers or authority any different from.

a. Their use as substantiating material in every professional debate I have ever seen.
b. Peer review.
c. A Jury system.
d. Most court cases in the last several thousand years.
c. In traditional scholarship for the lest several thousand years.

If virtually every show, book, or debate in scientific, historic, and philosophic arenas makes constant use of authority and even numbers at times on what ridiculous and contrived basis are they invalid for faith claims?

I have no need of an argument because there exists no counter claim to defend against. An pure assertion requires no argument to negate.


No argument needed here either. I even gave an example of this one at one point.


Proof positive you've entirely unfamiliar with multiverse hypotheses...
It is specifically because I have spent far more time tracking down claims about multiverses than they deserve my claim is true. The use the term "evidence" to try and give speculation legitimacy by terminology alone. They have no idea what another universe would be like. In this purely speculative arena a universe could be anything. How could they possibly know what anything would produce? There exists nothing more speculative possible that this garbage, yet all they have to do is claim "evidence" and you are convinced. That explains quite a lot. Not even to mention that in every single case where I asked for this evidence and read the links none actually existed what so ever of any kind. The last one for example was supposedly some garbage about the mathematical or physical effect another universe would have on this one and their looking for it. Forget that that whatever they were looking for was the result of speculations piled on assumptions, squared. When I actually read the article it was only a theoretical methodology and no actual measurement at all that was "discovered". This subject is so stupid, picking on it feels like wrestling a child to the ground. However you may try and do what no one in history has done. Explain exactly how we know what to even look for to indicate evidence of a multiverse, then provide examples of us actually finding it.

More excuses for you to avoid inconvenient points.
Nope, what I said. The arrogance displayed in your commentaries is so repulsive to me at the moment it renders replies unjustifiable. However you may invent false dichotomies and apply them to my motives whether you have access to them or not at will. I could not separate your side from it's favorite tactic if I tried anyway.


:facepalm:
I offered to provide that which you faulted me for failing to provide.
You implied I had not supplied evidence or something similar for a specific claim. I replied you had not done so in your reply.


That's irrelevant. Deductive validity just is when the conclusion of an argument cannot possibly be false if the premises are true- it needs to logically follow. And since "God exists" is the conclusion of the causal/cosmological argument, God's existence must follow necessarily from the premises of the argument. It does not.
That is not true. That is more what is required for a properly basic belief. In every court case ever decided it was possible the opposite conclusion could have been true, yet law decided (just as Christ did) that 12 people was enough to reach a reasoned conclusion with enough certainty to base life and death on it. Science, philosophy, nor faith has the burden you gave except where mentioned. It does not even pretend to, and in fact almost never meets it by accident.

The only burden a faith claim actually has is that it does not contradict reasonable certainties. I do not have to but I raise the bar for my claims to the best fit or best explanation (currently available) for evidence. My claims meet this unnecessary criteria and yours does not apply to anything in any realm except very where mentioned.

Seriously, you're here arguing that the cosmological argument is valid, when you do not even understand what logical validity even is?! :confused:
That is garbage and I can prove it. A large number of the scholars in history that are best trained to know what logical validity is and means (far greater than your likely capacity to know) hold to the cosmological arguments validity. If your pet attempt to negate the established arguments of Aristotle, Plantinga, Philoponus, Saadia, Hackett, Bonaventure, Leibnez, Clarke, Aquinas, Craig, Gail, Pruss, and Islamic philosopher's, etc.... it most likely only deserves a hasty burial.

I did not say I did not know what logical validity is. I said you have not shown anything lacked it. Here is what it is and my claims meet it's standard. In logic, an argument is valid if and only if its conclusion is logically entailed by its premises.

First, never, ever speak to me about bad philosophy. Second, you're answering a different question than the one I asked- I didn't ask "what can we know for a fact?", but rather, whether the world is scientifically observable. Why don't you try again?
You will find demands made on my behavior a waste if time. I have a much higher judge and authority than you. I will do as my conscience suggests, God requires of me. You have become permanently hostile. Explain to me what the relevance of observable is first, so I know in what context your using the word observable. Are you suggesting only things verified by eyesight are valid? Are you talking about observable as in verifiable through experience? What?


But these things are, nevertheless, scientifically observable, at least in principle.
In what way does any definition of observable apply to a thing which is in-detectable by any means what ever? I do not think the word means what you think it does? If by observable you are trying to suggest it's effects can be observable then the effects of God would also be observable.


You do, if you want to answer the question I asked.
That was the point, your question pre-supposed a burden nothing has I know of and certainly not faith claims. The questions is invalid so I did not answer it.
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
It's cool that you're referring to Graham Smetham who consider himself to be a "Quantum Buddhist." Here's a quote from him:

Or in other words, his argument does not support the Christian God but more like Tillich "Ground of Being" or Spinoza's God.
(Source: http://www.quantumbuddhism.com/GrandDesigner.pdf)

Is that the view you're arguing?
I gave that article as a response to a claim there exists no reason to think mind is independent of matter. I did not even think the article strong in that respect and said so many times. I certainly did not use it as proof of any God what ever. So I have no need to counter your misapplication of it concerning me.

Just out of curiosity how can there be evidence of any deistic God like Spinoza's God? I have never understood that concept.
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
Which only supports the billions of people have an experience they believe is God. The experience itself could be misleading. There could be other factors behind the experience. For instance, look into the experiments with the God helmet.
I believe this is probably true for a small percentage of these claims. However having experienced and studied the types of claims these are illustrates they are of a character that does not allow much ambiguity or uncertainty.

Just as one example. An almost universal aspect of these claims is that it occurred only after using the Gospel's as a guide and accepting the truth which they recommend which immediately produces the experience in question. For example the popular counter claim that certain brain chemistry problems can create experiences similar to this (which is rational but would not even account for a small fraction of the numbers in question) would not apply because of the timing involved. The chance that I had an epileptic fit the exact moment I attained faith is a ridiculous notion.

There exists dozens of reasons like this to equate reliability with Christian born again claims and not with counter explanations. Another would be independent confirmation and another shared experience. Regardless it is hard to talk to someone about an experience who did not have it. I can only say after (as most Christians do) decades of reflection and reexamination we arrive at the same conclusion over and over and over again and the experience it's self has a confirmation element the Bible guarantees that can only be understood by someone who has experienced it.
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
So what makes it true exactly? The sourcing comes from people alone. Nowhere else.

Oh, my avatar. Wattteerrrrrr....... ;0)
The context of my claim here was to the Christian. Craig wrote a long piece on the sufficiency and nature of the born again experience and it's philosophic sufficiency as proof to the one who experiences it, and would be more informative than my attempts to explain it. I was not implying it is proof to those who did not experience it. Given the large numbers it is a very reliable indication of it's truth but not proof of it. It is subjective proof and objective evidence.

Water does not explain your avatar. What is the meaning behind pouring water out of a container?
 

Ouroboros

Coincidentia oppositorum
I gave that article as a response to a claim there exists no reason to think mind is independent of matter. I did not even think the article strong in that respect and said so many times. I certainly did not use it as proof of any God what ever. So I have no need to counter your misapplication of it concerning me.
Of course you don't. I was just asking.

Just out of curiosity how can there be evidence of any deistic God like Spinoza's God? I have never understood that concept.
It's not a deistic God. Maybe that's why you don't understand the concept. The evidence is nature itself, just like Paul said.
 
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