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Cardinal Pell and Evolution

Brian2

Veteran Member
2 different passover days? What is your source?

Here are some, and in the reading of them you will find old records which tell us of the 2 Passovers.

Ehrman studies with Bruce Metzger who is the expert on the Greek manuscripts. We cnnot present any possibilities without a reason to find them plausible. As if Ehrman wouldn't know reasonable ways to harmonize this if it were possible. Fundmentalists with no training wanting to tell experts in the field what is correct?

Maybe maybe not. He might not agree but that does not mean he is right.

The story may be fiction so those factors do not matter. John had a theological reason to have Jesus die when the lamb dies. You are assuming it's a real story.

The Talmud, Sanhedrin 43a is supposed to be about the death of Jesus and tells us it was on the Eve of Passover. That is history that the gospel story is true and that the version of John is true.
What are your historical sources that John was wrong?

Yes so in the capital they would be going on the traditional schedule.

No, in the capital 2 Passover times were allowed according to history.

They don't give good reason at all. They are written in the style of historical fiction.

They are written in the style of the gospels. I remember Jesus telling some (Peter, John, etc ) to drop their nets on the other side of the boat and giving them a big fish catch that way. (Good reason)
I remember Jesus telling one (Nathaniel) that He knew of his prayer (Good reason)
Word gets around that miracles are being done by Jesus. In a time when the Messiah was being looked for, that might be all that is needed.
If you assume they are fictional then that is what they are for you.

If they cannot find proof they say so? Please give me an example of what you are talking about.

Surely you have read historians who disagree with each other and give their reasons that their reasoning is correct and that the others are wrong. How about the dating of the Exodus for a start?

All religions do copy from each other. Even the older apologetic academic work from the late 1800s has to admit the NT is a Hellenistic document.

Encyclopaedia Biblica : a critical dictionary of the literary, political, and religious history, the archaeology, geography, and natural history of the Bible

by Cheyne, T. K. (Thomas Kelly), 1841-1915; Black, J. Sutherland (John Sutherland), 1846-1923

We feel that we have moved more out of a Hebrew into a Greek atmosphere

in the Pastoral Kpistles, in Hebrews— which is beyond doubt dependent both in form and in contents on the Alexandrians (e.g. , 131814) — and in the Catholic Epistles ; the Epistle of James, even if, with Spitta, we should class it with the Jewish writings, must have had for its author a man with a Greek education. Tt was a born Greek that wrote Acts. If his Hellenic character does not find very marked expression it is merely due to the nature of his work ; no pure Jew would have uttered the almost pantheistic -sounding sentence, ' in God we live and move and have our being' (1723). In the Fourth Gospel, finally, the influence of Greek philosophy is incontestable. Not only is the Logos, which plays so important a part in the prologue (Ii-i8), of Greek origin ; the gnosticising tendency of John, his enthusiasm for ' the truth ' (svithout genitive), his dualism (God and the world almost treated as absolute antithesis), his predilection for abstractions, compel us to regard the author, Jew by birth as he certainly was, as strongly under the influence of Hellenic ideas. Here again, however, we must leave open the possibility that these Greek elements reached him through the Jewish Alexandrian philosophy ; just as little can his Logos theory have originated independently of Philo, as the figure of the Paraclete in chaps. 14-16 (see J. ReVille, La doctrine du Logos dans le quatrieme Evangile,. Paris, '81). Cp JOHN [SON OK ZKBEDEE], § 31.

We must conclude with the following guarded thesis. There is in the circle of ideas in the NT, in addition to what is new, and what is taken over from Judaism, much that is Greek ; but whether this is adopted directly from the Greek or borrowed from the Alexandrians, who indeed aimed at a complete fusion of Hellenism and Judaism, is, in the most important cases, not to be determined ; and primitive Christianity as a whole stands considerably nearer to the Hebrew world than to the Greek.

The spread of the gospels to the Gentiles entailed using Greek and Roman ideas and even the quote of of Paul in Acts from Greek poets. Greek educated writers would have transcribed and translated epistles etc.

There is little doubt Mark is rewriting Elijah, Moses, Psalms, Paul...

LOL Yes of course your historians' opinions are correct.

My list was put together from the original language in two places, Theodore Weeden, "Two Jesuses, Jesus of Jerusalem and Jesus of Nazareth:provocative Parallels and Imaginative Imitation, Forum N.S. 6.2 (fall 2003), pp 137-341; Graig Evans, "Jesus in Non-Christian Sources" in Studying the Historical Jesus )ed Chilton and Evans) pp 443-78, 475-77

I don't know what that is above.

Isn't what I posted just the story of Jesus Ben Ananus from Josephus. This enables us to compare your list with the actual story.
Maybe as you say, the odds of the list arising by chance is quite small. So you, with your presupposition that the prophecy of Jesus is not true and that the prophecy of this Ben Ananus is also not true, automatically say that Ben Ananus must have been the source of the Markean prophecy.
But of course it is clear that unless Josephus made up the Ben Ananus story, that prophecy IS true and that also the prophecy of Jesus in Mark also can be true.

No you cannot "easily" propose a God did anything until you can demonstrate a God exists.
It is reasonable to posit the supernatural did not exist until evidence of it is found, but there is so much evidence against this story being history that its almost impossible it's history.

But even if a God were attempting to prophesize through Josephus a historian, this ends up making Mark look like he's using more sources, creating confusion.

Are you saying here that the story of Ben Ananus is not true?
I have seen a site that hypothesises that the Josephus story is not true. Whose opinion is that, if that is what you are saying?

And of course you reject OT prophecy about the Messiah because it is easier for you to say that Jesus did not exist and the gospels were copied from various sources than to see Jesus and the prophecies about Him as evidence of God.
OK we all can think that if we want.
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
Dude, c'mon. A fundamentalist, apologist who is sourcing Habermas, Lee Strobel....more than once?????? Are you serious.

It's just the story, is the story I gave wrong?

You talk about bias and then you go to an apologist, fundy site? Why would you go and do the thing you are claiming is being done? OMG, N T Wright????
The author of the article DID NOT READ ROMULUS. He took pieces from apologists books who are dead set on writing for Christians, not for historical truth. All 3 authors have been caught bending facts.

How have they been caught bending facts?

Why didn't he go to the actual historians who did the work, read the original languages, and saw all the versions? There are quite a few. Because truth does not matter, their narrative matters.
If Romulus was not like Jesus, historians would show that. The article is by Richard Miller who went through a long depression and difficult time when he began to see Christianity was not true.

This site tells us what the different versions of the story are. You can read it and see how much it resembles the story of Jesus.

N.T. Wright Demonstrates the Bankruptcy of Christian Apologetics in Under Nine Minutes

From this site: Were women in 1st century Israel not trusted as witnesses in court?

5
In Jewish Law, women are not valid witnesses, as it states in the Mishnah (Shevuot 4:1):

שְׁבוּעַת הָעֵדוּת נוֹהֶגֶת בַּאֲנָשִׁים וְלֹא בְנָשִׁים
The oath of testimony is conducted with men and not women
The Talmud expounds on this and says (Shevuot 30a):
מנהני מילי דת"ר (דברים יט, יז) ועמדו שני האנשים בעדים הכתוב מדבר
How do we know? Because our Rabbis taught: "Two men shall stand." (Deuteronomy 19:17)
So during First Century Israel, where these laws were practiced by the Jewish community, it would be logical to say that women would not be valid witnesses. (Even today this is Jewish Law.)
If you have any other questions concerning Jewish religious practice or law, feel free to ask at Mi Yodeya, the Judaism Stack Exchange of which I am an active user.


(It should be noted that women are allowed as witnesses in secular Israel courts but not the religious courts)
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Here are some, and in the reading of them you will find old records which tell us of the 2 Passovers.
I greatly enjoyed your post. I really only wanted to respond to the website you cited, not really anything you yourself said.

This website above makes a serious error. The instructions given in Exodus 12 regarding staying inside the house etc. apply only to the actual Passover that occurred in Egypt, a one time event. They are not instructions for future remembrances. There is no reason, for example, for anyone in the future to paint the blood on the doorway. That was something ONLY for the original and actual night of the Passover.
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
I greatly enjoyed your post. I really only wanted to respond to the website you cited, not really anything you yourself said.

This website above makes a serious error. The instructions given in Exodus 12 regarding staying inside the house etc. apply only to the actual Passover that occurred in Egypt, a one time event. They are not instructions for future remembrances. There is no reason, for example, for anyone in the future to paint the blood on the doorway. That was something ONLY for the original and actual night of the Passover.

OK thanks for that, and I agree, but it is hard to find sites that completely agree with the Bible.
The sites served a purpose even if not 100% accurate.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Ok, I think in the Bible faith means loyalty to God.
You think? YOU think? Who do you think you are? You don't get to redefine words to mean whatever the heck you want. In every language, words have particular meanings because that is how they are used by people. I can't take the word "cat" and decide that it means a wooden object to sit on.

The word faith has two meanings. The first refers to beliefs, such that "the Christian faith" refers to a set of beliefs. The second refer to trust, as in "I have no faith in that man." Let's look at the dictionary, which, unlike you, actually IS an authority on what words mean:

faith
/fāTH/
noun
1.complete trust or confidence in someone or something.
"this restores one's faith in politicians"
2.strong belief in God or in the doctrines of a religion, based on spiritual apprehension rather than proof.
"bereaved people who have shown supreme faith"

And please don't even attempt say, "well the Bible defines it as..." because the Bible is not a dictionary. The Bible does not define words. The Bible simply uses words that are already defined.
 

1213

Well-Known Member
1.complete trust or confidence in someone or something.
"this restores one's faith in politicians"
2.strong belief in God or in the doctrines of a religion, based on spiritual apprehension rather than proof.
"bereaved people who have shown supreme faith"

And please don't even attempt say, "well the Bible defines it as..." because the Bible is not a dictionary. The Bible does not define words. The Bible simply uses words that are already defined.
The definitions you give are younger than the Bible. But that is a clever way to distort an old message.

For example in this scripture the word "faith" can be translated "fidelity", which means loyalty or reliability.

I tell you that he will avenge them quickly. Nevertheless, when the Son of Man comes, will he find faith on the earth?"
Luke 18:8

Same is also in this example of Noah. Noah was loyal to God and built the ark.

By faith, Noah, being warned about things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his house, through which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith.
Heb. 11:7
 

joelr

Well-Known Member
Here are some, and in the reading of them you will find old records which tell us of the 2 Passovers.

None of these are peer-reviewed journals or historical scholars. What they are attempting is literally just fix the discrepency in the Gospels?

Maybe maybe not. He might not agree but that does not mean he is right.
Uh, it's his field, he isn't a Pastor writing an article to harmonize Gospel accounts, he studies the period.

Is there another historian arguing for 2 Passovers?





The Talmud, Sanhedrin 43a is supposed to be about the death of Jesus and tells us it was on the Eve of Passover. That is history that the gospel story is true and that the version of John is true.
Are you serious with this Talmud stuff?

Professor Louis Ginzberg, "Some Observations on the Attitude of the Synagogue Towards the Apocalyptic-Eschatological Writings", Journal of Biblical Literature (1922), p. 121 n. 18 One may therefore state with absolute certainty that the entire Talmudic-Midrashic literature does not know of any nicknames for Jesus or his disciples.

No scholars in Judaism say that mention is Jesus?

24. “Jesus is mentioned in the Talmud”

As having been executed by Jews, through stoning, in Lydda and not Jerusalem, a hundred years before Pontius Pilate. This actually counts against historicity. Not for it (OHJ, ch. 8.1).

Dr Carrier



What are your historical sources that John was wrong?
Carrier:
4. “The Gospels”

“This should actually count for four reasons to accept Jesus’ existence as each Gospel is an independent account of his life.” Nope. See above. Every Gospel is just an embellished redaction of Mark. Even John (OHJ, ch. 10.7).

John redacts stories, Journal paper
"

John is the only gospel to claim an eyewitness source, and yet the author does not even name this mysterious figure, but simply refers to him as “the disciple whom Jesus loved.” This is hardly eyewitness testimony, and it is probably the case that the author(s) of John invented this figure. One possibility is that the anonymous beloved disciple is a character already identified within the text. Verbal parallels suggest that the anonymous disciple may be Lazarus from John 11 (verses 1; 3; 5; 11; 36), whom Jesus raises from the dead in the passage.[30] This Lazarus is likely based on the retelling of a story about an allegorical Lazarus in Luke 16:20-31. In the parable, Lazarus is a beggar who was fed by a wealthy man who dies and goes to Heaven, but the rich man dies and goes to Hell. The rich man begs Abraham in Heaven to send Lazarus to warn his family, since, if someone from the dead goes to them, they will repent. In Luke, Abraham refuses to send Lazarus from the dead, arguing that people should study the Torah and the Prophets to believe and will not be convinced even if someone from the dead visits them. In the Gospel of John, however, in which Jesus is more prone to demonstrate his powers through signs and miracles, rather than by appeals to Old Testament verses like in the Synoptic Gospels, the author instead has Jesus raise Lazarus from the dead, so that people might believe in him. The author of John thus very likely is redacting a previous story based on an allegorical character.


Regardless, even if the anonymous beloved disciple is not based on Lazarus[31], the Gospel of John is still extremely ambiguous about this character’s identity. The text even refuses to name him at key moments, such as the discovery of the empty tomb (20:1-9), where other characters such as Mary Magdalene and Peter are named, and yet this character is deliberately kept anonymous. The traditional identification of the disciple with John the son of Zebedee is undermined, among many other reasons, by the internal evidence of this beloved disciple’s connection with the high priest of Jerusalem (18:15-16), which could hardly be expected of an illiterate fisherman from backwater Galilee. The Gospel of John likewise shows signs of originally ending at John 20:30-31, and chapter 21, which claims the anonymous disciple as a witness, is very likely an addition from a later author. The chapter (21:24) distinguishes between the disciple who is testifying and the authors (plural) who know that it is true, suggesting that (even in this secondary material) the anonymous disciple is not to be understood as the author of the final version of the text.[32] Furthermore, the final composition of John is dated to approximately 90-120 CE, which is largely beyond the lifetimes of an adult eyewitnesses of Jesus.[33] In order to compensate for this problematic chronology, the author even had to invent the detail that this supposed eyewitness would live an abnormally long life (21:23) to account for the time gap. This detail is further explained if the anonymous disciple is based on Lazarus, who was already raised from the dead and has conquered death. Ultimately, all of these factors suggest that the unidentified “witness” is most likely an authorial invention (probably of a second author) used to gain proximal credibility for the otherwise latest of the four canonical Gospels.[34]


Given all of the problems with the traditional authorship of John, even Christian scholar Raymond Brown (An Introduction to the New Testament, pp. 368-369) explains: “As with the other Gospels it is doubted by most scholars that this Gospel was written by an eyewitness of the public ministry of Jesus.”"
No, in the capital 2 Passover times were allowed according to history.

which history?
They are written in the style of the gospels. I remember Jesus telling some (Peter, John, etc ) to drop their nets on the other side of the boat and giving them a big fish catch that way. (Good reason)
I remember Jesus telling one (Nathaniel) that He knew of his prayer (Good reason)
What the heck does a main character doing something that favors his followers have to do with showing it's true?


Word gets around that miracles are being done by Jesus. In a time when the Messiah was being looked for, that might be all that is needed.
If you assume they are fictional then that is what they are for you.

I don't. I assume they are historical fiction because they are all redactions of Mark, which uses parables, improbable events, an impossible chiasmus of events, triadic ring structure (literary devices only found in myth), definite use of Elijah and Moses narratives, Psalms, Paul, Homer, Romulus, Jesus Ben Ananias.....The Greek school was teaching this stye, it was a trending Hellenistic theology which fits exactly.....



Summary

The Hellenistic mystery cults play a decisive role in the argumentation of the representatives of the school of the history of religions (see the Introduction, above), in two ways. First, they postulate a genetic derivation of the Christian sacraments from the quasi-sacramental rites of the mystery cults (initiation, washings, anointings, sacred meals); they see the Chrisrian sacraments as having no basis in the message of Jesus and in Palestinian biblical Judaism, but rather as the outcome of a process of Hellenisation which is evaluated as a lapse from the original purity of the gospel, whether this is dated (with Heitmuller) already before Paul, or (with Harnack: see p. 148, n. 49) only outside the New Testament itself in the second century. Secondly, it is further argued (see Bruckner) that the myth of the dying and rising again of a divinity, which lies at the centre of each cult, was a significant influence on earliest Christianity's image of Christ, which drifted off into myth.


The Religious Context of Early Christianity


A Guide to Graeco-Roman Religions

HANS-JOSEF KLAUCK


Professor of New Testament Exegesis, University of Munich, Germany
 
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joelr

Well-Known Member
Surely you have read historians who disagree with each other and give their reasons that their reasoning is correct and that the others are wrong. How about the dating of the Exodus for a start?



Canaanites Were Israelites & There Was No Exodus








Prof. Joel Baden



1:20 DNA shows close relationship between Israelites and Canaanites. Israelites ARE Canaanites who moved to a different place.






3:45 Did Exodus happen as written (there are about 5 different stories)


6:10
Consensus. Biblical story of Exodus and people coming from Egypt and taking over through battle is not true. With slight variations here and there basically everyone will tell you they gradually came from the coastlands into the highlands. Canaanites moved away to the highlands and slowly became a unified nation after first splitting into tribes.



No Israelites until after 1000 BCE.


18:18 Isaiah 1 is 8th century. Ch 40 is suddenly different. Cyrus shows up, enter end times, Persian influence. Messianic concepts.



The only reason one would not see this is if committed to the idea that it’s not written in separate parts
The spread of the gospels to the Gentiles entailed using Greek and Roman ideas and even the quote of of Paul in Acts from Greek poets. Greek educated writers would have transcribed and translated epistles etc.

No, all of the theology is Hellenistic, sould, saved, heaven, savior deity


e) Myth and rite


The best way to tackle the question of what the aim of the performance of the mysteries was, or in other words what kind of salvation the mystery cults promised, is to attempt to determine the relationship between myth and rite. Every cult is based on its own divine myth, which narrates what happens to a god; in most cases, he has to take a path of suffering and wandering, but this often leads to victory at the end. The rite depicts this path in abbreviated form and thus makes it possible for the initiand to be taken up into the story of the god, to share in his labours and above all in his victory. Thus there comes into being a ritual participation which contains the perspective of winning salvation (awrqpia). The hope for salvation can be innerworldly, looking for protection from life's many tribulations, e.g. sickness, poverty, dangers on journey, and death; but it can also look for something better in the life after death. It always involves an intensification of vitality and of life expectation, to be achieved through participation in the indestructible life of a god (cf in general terms Burkert 11: mysteries 'aimed at a change of mind through experience of the sacred').

The Religious Context of Early Christianity
A Guide to Graeco-Roman Religions
HANS-JOSEF KLAUCK
Professor of New Testament Exegesis, University of Munich, Germany


LOL Yes of course your historians' opinions are correct.

You can demonstrate a story is dependent on another with intertextuality.
Isn't what I posted just the story of Jesus Ben Ananus from Josephus. This enables us to compare your list with the actual story.
Maybe as you say, the odds of the list arising by chance is quite small. So you, with your presupposition that the prophecy of Jesus is not true and that the prophecy of this Ben Ananus is also not true, automatically say that Ben Ananus must have been the source of the Markean prophecy.
But of course it is clear that unless Josephus made up the Ben Ananus story, that prophecy IS true and that also the prophecy of Jesus in Mark also can be true.


It doesn't matter what is true of not. Mark used the Jesus Ben Ananias story as one element, he used many stories to create a Jewish mystery religion. It's fiction


Are you saying here that the story of Ben Ananus is not true?
I have seen a site that hypothesises that the Josephus story is not true. Whose opinion is that, if that is what you are saying?

I don't know his history. Just that Mark is writing a Jewish mystery religion using Hellenism combined with Jewish elements.

And of course you reject OT prophecy about the Messiah because it is easier for you to say that Jesus did not exist and the gospels were copied from various sources than to see Jesus and the prophecies about Him as evidence of God.
OK we all can think that if we want.


That is what the evidence demonstrates. It's harder to follow evidence than buy things people tell you. Messianic expectation started during the 2nd Temple Period. The Persian religion already had a type of Christianity and it influenced the Jewish religion. It shows up in Isaiah.

Doctrines taken from Persia into Judiasm.

fundamental doctrines became disseminated throughout the region, from Egypt to the Black Sea: namely that there is a supreme God who is the Creator; that an evil power exists which is opposed to him, and not under his control; that he has emanated many lesser divinities to help combat this power; that he has created this world for a purpose, and that in its present state it will have an end; that this end will be heralded by the coming of a cosmic Saviour, who will help to bring it about; that meantime heaven and hell exist, with an individual judgment to decide the fate of each soul at death; that at the end of time there will be a resurrection of the dead and a Last Judgment, with annihilation of the wicked; and that thereafter the kingdom of God will come upon earth, and the righteous will enter into it as into a garden (a Persian word for which is 'paradise'), and be happy there in the presence of God for ever, immortal themselves in body as well as soul. These doctrines all came to be adopted by various Jewish schools in the post-Exilic period, for the Jews were one of the peoples, it seems, most open to Zoroastrian influences - a tiny minority, holding staunchly to their own beliefs, but evidently admiring their Persian benefactors, and finding congenial elements in their faith. Worship of the one supreme God, and belief in the coming of a Messiah or Saviour, together with adherence to a way of life which combined moral and spiritual aspirations with a strict code of behaviour (including purity laws) were all matters in which Judaism and Zoroastrianism were in harmony; and it was this harmony, it seems, reinforced by the respect of a subject people for a great protective power, which allowed Zoroastrian doctrines to exert their influence. The extent of this influence is best attested, however, by Jewish writings of the Parthian period, when Christianity and the Gnostic faiths, as well as northern Buddhism, all likewise bore witness to the profound effect: which Zoroaster's teachings had had throughout the lands of the Achaernenian empire.


Mary Boyce
 

joelr

Well-Known Member
It's just the story, is the story I gave wrong?
Yes, he did not even read Romulus, he is citing an apologist who debunked a google version.


How have they been caught bending facts?
please read this:


This site tells us what the different versions of the story are. You can read it and see how much it resembles the story of Jesus.
You cannot read all the versions here, so the parallels are given by a scholar writing on the subject"

Romulus


1- The hero son of god


2 - His death is accompanied by prodigies


3 - The land is covered in darkness


4- The heroes corpse goes missing


5 - The hero receives a new immortal body, superior to the one he had


6 - His resurrection body has on occasion a bright shining appearance


7 - After his resurrection he meets with a follower on the road to the city


8 - A speech is given from a summit or high place prior to ascending


9 - An inspired message of resurrection or “translation to heaven” is delivered to witnesses


10 - There is a great commission )an instruction to future followers)


11- The hero physically ascends to heaven in his divine new body


12 - He is taken up into a cloud


13 - There is an explicit role given to eyewitness testimony (even naming the witnesses)


14 - Witnesses are frightened by his appearance and or disappearance


15 - Some witnesses flee


16 - Claims are made of dubious alternative accounts


17 - All of this occurs outside of a nearby but central city


18 - His followers are initially in sorrow over his death


19 - But his post-resurrection story leads to eventual belief, homage and rejoicing


20 - The hero is deified and cult subsequently paid to him (in the same manner as a God)



From this site: Were women in 1st century Israel not trusted as witnesses in court?

5
In Jewish Law, women are not valid witnesses, as it states in the Mishnah (Shevuot 4:1):

The Talmud expounds on this and says (Shevuot 30a):

So during First Century Israel, where these laws were practiced by the Jewish community, it would be logical to say that women would not be valid witnesses. (Even today this is Jewish Law.)
If you have any other questions concerning Jewish religious practice or law, feel free to ask at Mi Yodeya, the Judaism Stack Exchange of which I am an active user.


(It should be noted that women are allowed as witnesses in secular Israel courts but not the religious courts)

You think Carrier hasn't studied Jewish law from the period he writes on?????????????????



  • And yet the Talmud explicitly says, “Wherever the Torah accepts the testimony of one witness, it follows the majority of persons, so that two women against one man is identical with two men against one man.” In other words, women’s testimony is not only accepted, but as equal to a man’s. (Why did Wright not know this? This evinces he didn’t even check. Take note.) It then adds “But there are some who declare” women’s testimony carries less weight than a man’s—but not that it was not allowed or trusted at all; and this is only “some” (who are neither named, nor even said to be Rabbis), and the Talmud does not side with their opinion anyway. Wright’s response: never mentions this point.

If you read Carrier's article first you could have saved time and not had to post this. He cites 30 examples countering this and Wright's failure to respond. Such as,
  • “Roman law was quite explicit in permitting women to swear oaths and testify in court, declaring in no uncertain terms that ‘women have the right to give evidence at trial'” (that’s a direct quote from the Imperial Roman law code). And the Gospels were not written by nor for Palestinian Jews, so Jewish law and custom is largely irrelevant to their marketability. Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
  • Women had prominent roles, both in fact and mythology, in nearly every other religion among the peoples Christians most successfully recruited from (which was not the Jews, BTW, among whom they were quite unsuccessful). So why wouldn’t Christianity? Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
  • Needless to say, none of this rigmarole about law courts has anything to do with tall tales about empty tombs; much less tales written by men. Remember, no woman is ever testifying here: this is Mark, a man (so far as we have any reason to believe), inventing women in a bit of fiction; and he has their testimony do no significant work in the remainder of the tale (they tell “no one”); likewise Matthew, Luke, and John (who all have men as witness to the resurrection). So no one is even being asked to believe women about anything in this story; much less in a court of law. So Wright doesn’t even have that premise to stand on here. Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
  • “There is no evidence Christians ever used any female testimony to promote the Gospel.” Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
  • There is no evidence of anyone leaving Christianity or refusing to convert because the Gospels put women in their story. Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
  • Mark never cites the women as witnesses to begin with. He never says they are his source. No author does. Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
  • “The involvement of women in Christianity’s [narrative] was no greater than in the [mythology] of Israel, from Mariam to Sarah to Ruth” and “the Prophets Deborah (Judges 4) or Huldah (2 Kings 22:12-20), or Rachel the Mother of All Israel (Genesis 29-35).” No Jews ever balked at this. Wright’s response: never mentions this point.
 

Audie

Veteran Member
The definitions you give are younger than the Bible. But that is a clever way to distort an old message.

For example in this scripture the word "faith" can be translated "fidelity", which means loyalty or reliability.

I tell you that he will avenge them quickly. Nevertheless, when the Son of Man comes, will he find faith on the earth?"
Luke 18:8

Same is also in this example of Noah. Noah was loyal to God and built the ark.

By faith, Noah, being warned about things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his house, through which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith.
Heb. 11:7
What a nonexistent person in a fictional
story did, said, was told, or is quoted saying
is, well, fiction.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Translations like the NIV are pretty brand spankin' new. As for the Greek, it has not changed -- translators know what it meant. That's their expertise. Not yours.
The NIV at the least had a terrible start because it was compiled and translated to reflect evangelical perspectives. I had a copy and got rid of it several decades ago.
 
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