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Christianity must change or die

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
I know all about it. The apocrypha was never considered scripture. It was only accepted reading based on historical, not inspirational value. Which was why it was placed between the old and new testament. They did not integrate it into the Old Testament text as do the corrupt Alexandrian manuscripts.

That is not correct. The 1611 that I just looked at had them placed throughout - as does the Catholic Bible that was passed down to me.

Protestants not liking them doesn't necessarily make them "non scripture!"
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Those ^ above ^ mentioned apocryphal books exclude themselves being out of harmony with the '66' Bible books.- 2nd Timothy 3 vs 16,17

Ummm! What?

2Ti 3:16 All Scripture is giuen by inspiration of God, & is profitable for doctrine, for reproofe, for correction, for instrution in righteousnesse,

2Ti 3:17
That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished vnto all good workes.

Don't get on me about the spelling - LOL - this is from the 1611 KJV.
 

ErikErik

Member
I believe it's very true that if you have a firm foundation, reading other bible versions will not sway one from it. However, many Christians today have been brought up using one of these paraphrased bibles and do not get the actual full meaning of certain passages and it can make a difference.

Many years ago this was not a problem. The protestant churches were using the King James Bible. Then along came Westcott and Hoyt in the 1800's who introduced to the world their version: the NIV. This led to the KJB becoming the KJV. Just another "version." Ever since then we now have many versions, each a little different from the others in order to qualify for a copyright. The next thing you know the newer bibles are diluted because of word changes and omissions.
 

look3467

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
I believe it's very true that if you have a firm foundation, reading other bible versions will not sway one from it. However, many Christians today have been brought up using one of these paraphrased bibles and do not get the actual full meaning of certain passages and it can make a difference.>>>ErikErik

The main meaning or theme of any revised version is that God is a Redeemer in Jesus Christ.

All else is up for discussion.

Blessings, AJ
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Main meaning or theme of Jesus preaching and teaching is the 'good news [gospel] of God's kingdom' .
-Luke 4 v 43; Matthew 24 v 14; Acts 1 v 8
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Ummm! What?
2Ti 3:16 All Scripture is giuen by inspiration of God, & is profitable for doctrine, for reproofe, for correction, for instrution in righteousnesse,
2Ti 3:17
That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished vnto all good workes.
Don't get on me about the spelling - LOL - this is from the 1611 KJV.

The apocryphal books are Not part of the KJV only the '66' are.- 2nd Tim 3 vs 16,17
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
URAVIP2ME said:
Who creates at Genesis 1 v 26 ?_________

The Elohiym.

To me this is probably the original Hebrew God and Goddess - which is why the image of the Elohiym is both male and female.

It switches to only YHVH of the Elohiym in Gen 2:4.
 

ErikErik

Member
The KJV/AV was originally printed with the deuterocanon.

When we read what the KJB translators said about the deutocanon/apocrypha, we see that they never considered them to be God's Word (inspired), but included them for historical reading. They knew these books were never in the Hebrew Scriptures.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The Elohiym.
To me this is probably the original Hebrew God and Goddess - which is why the image of the Elohiym is both male and female.
It switches to only YHVH of the Elohiym in Gen 2:4.

Doesn't the Tetragrammaton [YHWH] refer to a personal name ?________

Elohiym [ Elohim ] just means God. God is a title not a personal name.
Adhonai just means Sovereign Lord. Sovereign Lord is also just a title not a name.
Yehwah' ha' Elohim' - 1st Chronicles 22 v 1
Both God and Jesus are only in the masculine not as male/female or neuter.
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Doesn't the Tetragrammaton [YHWH] refer to a personal name ?________

Actually there is some question to that idea as well - Google YHVH God and Goddess.

Elohiym [ Elohim ] just means God. God is a title not a personal name.

It is a plural. They do all kinds of gymnastics to try and force it into a ONE God. The "Royal We" idea, etc.

Adhonai just means Sovereign Lord. Sovereign Lord is also just a title not a name.
Yehwah' ha' Elohim' - 1st Chronicles 22 v 1

Indeed, Adhoni means Lord, However YHVH' ha' Elohiym = YHVH of the Elohiym, And again, we know Elohiym is a plural.

I translate 22:1 as -
1 Ch 22:1 And said David thus, this is a Temple to YHVH of the Elohiym for an mizbeach/altar of sacrifice for Israel.

Both God and Jesus are only in the masculine not as male/female or neuter

And you know perfectly well that such is the normal syntax used in patriarchal cultures = he, MANkind, etc.

Gen 1:27 And created Elohiym (the Gods) themselves the mankind from the image and resemblance of Elohiym (the Gods) created they/themselves male and female created they/themselves (H853.) - (see Eze 34:10) Not HE.
 

look3467

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
One question that would answer all your questions is, is there procreation in God's spiritual kingdom?
If yes, then their is a "we" and not a single "One God".

If the answer is no, then there is a single God who is exemplified in three distinct characters: 1. As a Father God 2. As a Son God and 3. as God in spirit abiding in the spirit of mankind.

Therefore, the ladder being, that there is no gender definition in the kingdom of God, only here where we are pro creators of our specie, due to gender definition.

Blessings, AJ
 
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