I'm unsure if you're being rhetorical or asking a legitimate question, since I've repeatedly explained how slavery for the Israelites (limited, indentured servitude, humane, economic exchange) was moral.
But it's also moral to own an Israelite slave without that is not limited and because of economic exchange. And I'm not saying this just because I'm correct, it's actually your God that commands it.
Deuteronomy 15
12
And if thy brother, an Hebrew man, or an Hebrew woman, be sold unto thee, and serve thee six years; then in the seventh year thou shalt let him go free from thee.
13 And when thou sendest
him out free from thee, thou shalt not let
him go away empty:
14 Thou shalt furnish him liberally out of thy flock, and out of thy floor, and out of thy winepress: of that wherewith the Lord thy God hath blessed thee thou shalt give unto him.
15 And thou shalt remember that thou wast a bondman in the land of Egypt, and the Lord thy God redeemed thee: therefore I command thee this thing to day.
16 And it shall be, if he say unto thee, I will not go away from thee; because he loveth thee and thine house, because he is well with thee;
17 Then thou shalt take an aul, and thrust it through his ear unto the door, and he shall be thy servant for ever. And also unto thy maidservant thou shalt do likewise.
So it can be moral to own an Israelite woman slave
forever. And sometimes own an Israelite man
forever as well, therefore, it's not limited. And it's not for economic exchange, but because of his love for his wife.
Context is important. Depending on the context, it is morally right to own an Israelite slave and a Gentile slave. Your God just proved that I'm right and you're wrong about biblical morality, it's not absolute. So are you ready to be someone's slave for life yet?