Cite where I've said that then.
From post #77:
Christianity is a dogmatic religion
That's an exhaustive statement. If you didn't mean for it to be exhaustive, you should have said, "Xy is a religion with dogmas." As I've shown, Xy isn't a dogmatic religion, for love, justice, relationship and sharing do not depend on dogma in order for us to practice them faithfully. And those are the building blocks of Xy.
That's fine. Christianity, as a religion, is a dogmatic religion, as a matter of classification.
According to...?
And "classification" according to what criteria, and for what purposes?
This is because it typically has dogmas, or official teachings, and that's what "dogmatic" means here. This is a simple fact.
Then the teachings are what is dogmatic -- not the religion. The religion is far more than its "official" teachings.
Dogma, as such, easily lends itself to anti-intellectualism, as I have said, because a commitment to a position or belief come what may (i.e. a dogma) will require one, if other sources contradict that position, to say whatever is necessary to rationalize the position in the face of contradictory evidence- and that includes denying the validity of reason, logic, the senses, science (in other words, anti-intellectualism). The history of the Church is a case study in this fact.
It
can. But that's not necessarily the case. In fact, most things
can lend themselves to anti-intellectualism. Dogma =/= blind allegiance. In fact, the RCC has something called "informed dissent" that releases one from blindly following church decisions. Your statement is rather like seeing a few wormy apples in a bushel and concluding that, because there is opportunity for apples to be wormy that all apples are substandard as a fruit and as a source of nutrition.
Glad we got that covered.
No, we didn't. Because you've conveniently ignored the other half of that statement, which (truncated) said that Xy is primarily focused on how we live our lives in this world. In other words, simply because Xy claims an afterlife does not define it as "otherworldly." it isn't.
It's quite relevant to your argument that the bible contains discriminatory statements against homosexuality. For, if homosexuality was unknown at the time of writing, there can, by definition, be no discriminatory statements against something that was not known to exist.
Irrelevant.
The point is- as I've expressed to another poster- that misogynistic attitudes towards women and homophobia are not incidental to Christians or the Christian faith, but are a function of specific scriptural passages, and the subsequent religious traditions based upon them, which forbid homosexual relations, describe them as abominations, and portray women as inferior and subservient to men
Again: No. Because it's not a function of specific scriptural passages, but rather the neglect of properly exegeting those passages that results in the behaviors and attitudes you cite. The passages, themselves, can only be properly understood inasfar as they are properly exegeted.
and all this as a matter of divine sanction.
No, it's a matter of undisciplined interpretation.
That Christianity is dogmatic and otherwordly is a patent fact. It has official teachings, and it posits an afterlife or a higher realm.
Neither of which (as I've said before) makes the religion dogmatic or otherworldly. It does make some teachings dogmatic (again: the teachings are not the religion). But the focus of the religion isn't on the afterlife. It's on
this life. Just because astronomers look at the stars doesn't mean that science is "unearthly."
That verses describing homosexual acts as abominations and women as inferior are prejudiced is self-evident.
No, it's only evident that the writers held different views of women and homosexual acts than we do.
And that all this is pernicious follows fairly easily.
Only if insufficient conclusions are drawn from insufficient study of the facts. We, today, hold the authors' views as pernicious -- as well we should -- but the authors' views do not the religion make. therefore, Xy, itself, isn't "pernicious" based only upon what the authors thought.
Patting ourselves on the back a bit prematurely, as it turns out.
You're dismissing facts a bit prematurely, as it turns out.
Even if this speculation as to my methods were true (it is not, needless to say)
Oh, it needed saying, all right.
this is not what "anti-intellectualism" means.
Hmmm. From Wikipedia: "Anti-intellectualism is hostility towards and mistrust of intellect, intellectuals, and intellectual pursuits,
usually expressed as the derision of education, philosophy, literature, art, and science, as impractical and contemptible."
You said in post #76:
short of writing a 200 page work on the subject, comparisons of Religion A vs. Religion B are bound to be somewhat "superficial" and not entirely representative of every aspect of a religion.
but I suppose that statement doesn't treat the intellectual pursuit of understanding a religion as "impractical" in this case? And your subsequent maligning of Xy, based upon shoddy research (because, of course, decent research would be far too impractical for your purposes here) also doesn't fit the description of "anti-intellectual. Mmhmm.
You appear to be unaware of what "dogmatic" means in this context, and are objecting on the basis of that misunderstanding- like Christine. "Dogma" is not, in this context, a value-judgment or a negative term. It is a term in comparative religion for an official teaching. I think I've mentioned this above, hopefully this sinks in. This misunderstanding also renders most of what you've said on the question of dogma irrelevant.
Oh, I understand fully what dogma is and is not. But, as I've said, the teachings are not the religion. The relationships are the religion, and those are not dogma. There may be dogma
about them, so that we can understand them better, but they, themselves, are not dogma. Which is why the religion isn't dogmatic, even though it has dogma.
There's some misunderstanding going on, but it's certainly not coming from me.
If I was talking about a subject on which Christianity DID have diverse opinions, then yes. But since I was talking about some general features of Christianity as a religion, shared by all but perhaps a few outliers, then no.
So, equality of target groups, endorsement of slavery and other systemic violence (such as human trafficking) are not subjects on which there is much diverse opinion??? Srsly?
Discrimination of women and of those who identify as homosexual, slavery, violence, and anti-intellectualism are patently
not "general features of Xy as a religion." They may be viewpoints held by some (or even many), but they have relatively little to do with the religion, itself -- except, of course, for the establishment of justice, the propagation of love, and the fostering of right relationships. These subjects are hotly debated -- even within the largest and most mainstream groups. Therefore, diversity is
crucial to the debate here.
trying to weirdly turn it into a racial thing
I wasn't trying to "turn it into a racial thing." I was using the example as hyperbole, to hopefully get you to see how absurd your position on context really is.
The verses are not qualified in any such way.
Good exegesis does qualify them in that way.
This is your interpretation being projected onto the text, and one that is not shared by any consensus of your fellow Christians.
No, it's a product of exegesis. What you're talking about is
eisegesis, or reading into the text what isn't there. Which is what
you're doing. There is consensus (and its growing) among scholars as to the nature of the texts in question. What the uninformed believe has more to do with individual beliefs than it does the nature of the "religion" or even what the texts say.
The problem you have, as I see it, isn't really with Xy, itself. it's with a number of those who identify as Xtian, and with a limited number of "official" teachings (none of which are universally agreed upon, anyway, so just how "official" are they?).