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Jane.Doe

Active Member
***THIS THREAD IS FOR CHRISTIANS ONLY***
Note: ReligiousForum acknowledges the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints as a Christian denomination, grouping it under the “Restorationist Dir”. RF does not require a person to be a Trinitarian in order to be a Christian.
 

Watchmen

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Note: ReligiousForum acknowledges the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints as a Christian denomination, grouping it under the “Restorationist Dir”. RF does not require a person to be a Trinitarian in order to be a Christian.
So if RF categorizes Mormons as Christians then they must be Christians. Is that your argument?
 

TreeOfLife

Member
No rush. Honestly.

I've got three quarantined kids at home.

I ain't got the time either!
LDS is a pay for heaven denomination.
I say that as to get to the celestial kingdom you have to pay a full title, consecrate all that you are to the church (Not to G-d or Christ).
The book of Mormon does bring truths and wisdom to the table. But then why did its first leader add to the requirements of the G-d of heaven and earth for eternal life

And yes I am baptized LDS
 

TreeOfLife

Member
That is not at all accurate.

Descendants of Abraham were referred to as "Hebrews" up until their captivity in Egypt - when they were designated Israelites - after their patriarch Israel.

The term "Jew" originally referred to descendants of Judah (son of Israel) but later - after the schism - it was also used to refer to citizens of the Southern Kingdom of Judah in general - which contained the entire tribe of Judah and the majority of Benjamin.

Although - referring to citizens of Judah as "Jews" was not a reference to lineage - but to national/cultural identity.

It's like how everyone in the Untied States can be referred to as an "American" - even though that descriptor does not allude to their lineage.

Also - since the Northern Kingdom of Israel was generally less faithful to YHWH - faithful members from every tribe moved to Judah.

Therefore it makes perfect sense that Lehi - a Manassehite and faithful worshiper of YHWH - would dwell in Jerusalem.

Lehi and his family never referred to themselves as Jews - even though they had come from Jerusalem.

Nephi - Lehi's son - made it clear that they were not Jews in his admonition to the readers of the Book of Mormon to come to Christ,

"And now, my beloved brethren, and also Jew, and all ye ends of the earth, hearken unto these words and believe in Christ; and if ye believe not in these words believe in Christ. And if ye shall believe in Christ ye will believe in these words, for they are the words of Christ, and he hath given them unto me; and they teach all men that they should do good." (2 Nephi 33:10)

The reason that we today refer to the culture and religion of Hebrews as "Jewish" and "Judaism" is because the majority of the survivors of the Babylonian Exile were descendants of Judah and they were allowed to return and retain their distinctive cultural and religious identity.

Simply put - all Jews are Israelites - but not all Israelites are Jews.

I always find this assertion to be laughable.

The idea that a handful of Israelites would make any sort of dent in the genetic makeup of the Amerindians - especially after thousands of years of genocidal wars and plagues - is absurd.

Not to mention that we don't have any Manassehite DNA to compare anything to.

Also - the discovery of Haplogroup X in Native American populations - which is shared by descendants of Syria, Lebanon and Israel - proves that not all ancestors of the Native Americans were Asian.

I don't know how you came to this conclusion.

Jeremiah 28 recounts a false prophet who claimed that Babylon's dominance/occupation or "yoke" upon Judah would be broken in two years - contrary to the prophesies of Jeremiah and other prophets.

It does not claim that Israelites were not allowed to leave Judah or Israel.

Jeremiah 29 was a letter which was obviously written after the desolation caused by Babylon because it was addressed to Israelite captives in Babylon that had been scattered,

"Now these are the words of the letter that Jeremiah the prophet sent from Jerusalem unto the residue of the elders which were carried away captives, and to the priests, and to the prophets, and to all the people whom Nebuchadnezzar had carried away captive from Jerusalem to Babylon;" (Jeremiah 29:1)

Many question if Jeremiah even wrote this letter or if someone wrote it based on his works.

Either way - the letter was written after Babylon destroyed Israel and Judah and experts claim that it could not have been written any earlier than 540 B.C.E - which was 60 years after the Book of Mormon claims Lehi and his family left Jerusalem.

Basically - neither of these chapters apply to Lehi and his family or contradict any claims made in the Book of Mormon.

That is demonstrably false.

The Genesis account claims that Noah became drunk after the Flood - well after he had been called to be a prophet - which caused some significant commotion.

Moses not only refused to circumcise his son at the command of God (his wife had to do it) but he also took credit for God's miracle of providing water from the stone - which cost him entrance into the promised land.

Jonah complained against God after the inhabitants of Nineveh repented - which was his mission - and lamented that God did not destroy them.

Peter not only denied the Lord three times - but he stubbornly clung to the traditions of the Law of Moses in defiance to revelation he himself had received.

Just for curiosity sake - what do you mean by "occult" and what "occult" practices are you referring to?

The New Testament is filled with these warnings? You mean a handful - right?

Either way - the Gospel taught by the Prophet Joseph Smith is the same one that is taught in the New Testament.

"We believe that the first principles and ordinances of the Gospel are: first, Faith in the Lord Jesus Christ; second, Repentance; third, Baptism by immersion for the remission of sins; fourth, Laying on of hands for the gift of the Holy Ghost." (4th Article of Faith)

I fail to see how Temple worship is proof of any kind of "occultism".

Unless you are using that term to describe "studying truth that dwells beneath the surface" (the actual definition of "occultism").

The Masonic influence on the Temple Endowment is obvious - but what do you mean when you say the Prophet incorporated "Masonic practices"? What exactly are you referring to?

Also explain how any of these things contradict the Bible.

And you believe to know exactly what the Lord meant when He said that and what the renting of the veil signified?

Yes - latter-day scripture - such as the Book of Mormon and the Book of Abraham - agree with these teachings.

However - the Book of Hebrews does not claim that anything happening in latter-day Temples is incorrect or what the Lord meant when He said, "It is finished" or what the renting of the veil signified.

If Temple worship is "anti-biblical" - then why did the first practitioners of the new covenant - Peter, James, John and Paul - frequently worship and teach at the temple in Jerusalem?

I'm not about to make any judgments about the Freemasons - but nothing that happens in latter-day Temples is "demonic" or related to "witchcraft".

What exact practices and rituals are you referring to?
 
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