Yes I was saying.
I cringe when I see people who quote those verses as if the Bible is contradicting itself and the writers never thought "Hmmm why would God institute complex sacrifices if he's just going to say he never wanted them in the first place...oh well, let's keep it all in, no one will notice that glaring contradiction". (However, it seems the NT writers had no problem with including a glaring contradiction or ten, but that's for another story, the difference here is that in this case it's merely a matter of bad cherry picked interpretation whereas the NT contradictions, as even the Christian scholars admit, cannot be reconciled except with extreme twisting, no twisting is involved to get the right context of the Sacrifice verses because it simply requires NOT CHERRY PICKING).
Can you imagine the possibility of the context being that God does not appreciate their sacrifices and burnt offerings being done without having the right heart and mindset or done while they have unconfessed major sins or are committing idolatry? Or do you want to believe that he was lying when he first instituted them? Or that the entire sacrificial system was forged by lying scribes? Sheesh I really can't stand when people completely misinterpret those verses to mean God wanted to do away with the sacrifices altogether, completely ignoring the later verses that describe that the sacrifices are still to be done except when their hearts are set right. So what about what I was saying is there an objection to?
Seems the adulteress is a pretty good illustration of the concept.
The Pericope Adulterae, as anyone with a basic knowledge of NT manuscript history should know, is likely a spurious addition that doesn't exist in the early manuscripts. That's why most translations put a little asterisk at 7:53. Thought I mentioned this but I'll be happy to explain again if needed. Thus, the common use of the Pericope Adulterae to justify just about any sin and not judging anyone for it....is a total complete canard. The episode of the Adulteress is commonly used to say the Mosaic Law shouldn't be applied, as if we should let murderers and rapists off the hook as well.
As for not judging, that's another highly misunderstood verse. The context of "Lest ye be judged" and the version in Luke of "You will be judged by the manner in which ye judge" does not mean you should not judge at all. Should you interpret that to mean you shouldn't judge someone who rapes and murders your whole family in cold blood? I don't think so. It means you will be judged how you are judged, and to not judge in ways that aren't legitimately just. You're still allowed to hold judgments of people. But be careful doing it.
And? How does this make your point?
Do you think this negates the command or supports it?
Jesus obviously was teaching to make a sacrifice as Moses commanded and explained that one should make up with their brother before offering on the altar. How does that NOT support my point?
No I think I mean in Matthew 5 where he says "You have heard an eye for an eye" and then explains that it's not meant to be applied to every little detail in a strict form of revenge. Even modern Rabbis believe this way, as I explained.
Yes, they will return in the end days, what's your objection? It doesn't mean that Jesus wasn't teaching to not obey the Law. The point I made was that Jesus said to make disciples of all nations. The Zechariah verses apply to EVERYONE not just Jesus's disciples. A disciple of Jesus would have the same rules and regulations as his Jewish followers. He never said "One rule for the gentile, and a different rule for the Jew". This does not mean that the Zechariah end times verses will only mean Jesus's disciples need obey the Law in the end days.
With that said, how does ANY of that post in any way remotely rebut what I said about Jesus teaching full obedience to the Mosaic Law? It doesn't.