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Can semen be considered an object in such a case?
Obviously the statistics don't lie
How about this: sunni56 meets a beautiful woman and takes her home. He consents to sex. They get down to it. The chick turns out to be a pre-op MTF, complete with a penis and testicles. She's also stronger than him so she rides him like a prize bull while he cries and complains about it.
His own fault, right?
None of this is making sense to me. Why would a woman tell a man it's OK to have sex with her but he can't ejaculate? I am hearing this correctly? If it is, it's semantics- don't sex and orgasm go hand in hand?
I think I should read the article and read it thoroughly because something doesn't sound right here.
Not at all.
I ve had sex without ejaculation more than once, I ve find it very enjoyable.
Sex and orgasm also dont necessarily go hand in hand. Me personally I enjoy the whole process and to make it long and pleasurable. The "big end" its waaaaaaay not as important as the whole game
I never have orgasm with sex- but I am a female. My husband almost always orgasms. I kind of envy ladies who orgasm with sex. I don't know if the fault is mine or my husband's.
Good question. In as much as the definition specifically mentions "person" and then goes on to mention something else, an "object" in this case, I would say that the "object" is not of the person.Can semen be considered an object in such a case?
I never have orgasm with sex- but I am a female. My husband almost always orgasms. I kind of envy ladies who orgasm with sex. I don't know if the fault is mine or my husband's.
I know this wasn't directed at me, but I am amused by it. So I will give my 2 cents. They are both in the wrong- the first person for picking up someone without having enough knowledge about her/him in the first place (even if someone is not monogamous, they should at least know some things about person before they sleep together, right?) and the first person for not saying anything. But the complaints trump each other out and there would never be a case.
I never have orgasm with sex- but I am a female. My husband almost always orgasms. I kind of envy ladies who orgasm with sex. I don't know if the fault is mine or my husband's.
None of this is making sense to me. Why would a woman tell a man it's OK to have sex with her but he can't ejaculate? I am hearing this correctly? If it is, it's semantics- don't sex and orgasm go hand in hand?
I think I should read the article and read it thoroughly because something doesn't sound right here.
None of this is making sense to me. Why would a woman tell a man it's OK to have sex with her but he can't ejaculate? I am hearing this correctly? If it is, it's semantics- don't sex and orgasm go hand in hand?
I think I should read the article and read it thoroughly because something doesn't sound right here.
I don't usually orgasm from sex alone either. I used to feel weird about it, but now I just insist on going first. If you make that a condition of your consent, perhaps your husband would be on board with figuring out how help you make that happen.
Here is the law."England and Wales
Rape is defined as follows:
Rape
(1) A person (A) commits an offence if(a) he intentionally penetrates the vagina, anus or mouth of another person (B) with his penis,
(b) B does not consent to the penetration, and
(c) A does not reasonably believe that B consents.
This certainly helps to explain why there are so many "accidental" pregnancies.
I did.If you're going to print it, for goodness sake print it all:-
Nice, but you forgot to credit your source (kind of amounts to plagiarism when you don't. )Rape
(1)A person (A) commits an offence if—
(a)he intentionally penetrates the vagina, anus or mouth of another person (B) with his penis,
(b)B does not consent to the penetration, and
(c)A does not reasonably believe that B consents.
(2)Whether a belief is reasonable is to be determined having regard to all the circumstances, including any steps A has taken to ascertain whether B consents.
(3)Sections 75 and 76 apply to an offence under this section.
(4)A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable, on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for life.
Different?
Much different?
I did.
My source. You do know, don't you, that sources can vary.
Nice, but you forgot to credit your source (kind of amounts to plagiarism when you don't. )
In any case, what is that you see in your expanded definition that affects the point at issue: non-consensual ejaculation?