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Criminals and mental illness

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
I don't find you can compare between those two.

And urges is an early sign, you need to be able to say that there's something wrong with yourself instead of justified it based on your own perspective. And unfortunately, that's what people tends to do, they're afraid to admit that they need help.

Do you mean obsession?

Urge can be an early sign, but it has to accompany other signs too. The crime and nature of it by itself doesn't constitute a sign of a mental illness. It's a stereotype (as per OP) but in psychiatry, if every bad action we did in its severity would be balled down to mental illness, we'd all be in treatment as justifications/excuses for the consequences of our actions.

As a mental illness (a psychiatric disorder), it depends on the symptoms of the person, their support network, doctors, and if they receive medication, that as well. Killing and urge to kill isn't a first sign. Their mental illness may "lead to" killing but it's not the cause and result of intentional killing and other crimes.

A lot of people mentally ill seek help. They have voluntary admission (Admission to a psychiatric hospital) for those who feel they are in danger to themselves or others and seek medical solace temporarily.

If you had the urge to kill for a good while and go to the doctors, they'd want to see if you have other symptoms to diagnose a mental illness. But urge in itself-for whatever reason-doesn't constitute a means for mental illness

But my question still remains, though. How does the nature of the repetitive urge to kill or urge to get candy make one a mental illness and the other not?
 

Heyo

Veteran Member
Facts are, the mentally ill as a whole group typically and generally are not criminal or violent. IQ level considerations or not (and it's not a valid definition as those with low and high IQs can have mental illness), crime is not common among the mentally ill.
That was never said or implied. They question is if mental illness is common among the criminal.
 

Fool

ALL in all
Premium Member
Should criminals who commit horrific crimes (sex abuse, serial killer, etc) need to be provided justification of having a mental illness in order for the public to understand how anyone can perform such horrendous acts?

I don't believe all criminals have mental illness only that they intentionally choose to break the law and harm others and are suffering the consequences of their actions. When saying "he had a mental illness" to justify the intent it's almost as if the public is getting the criminal off the hook.

While some criminals do have mental illnesses, this is focusing on those who intentionally commit crimes and are in jail (or so have you-edit-without mental illnesses).
narcissists and sociopaths are created by their early environmental development. psychopaths are born that way. psychopathology is not treatable.


narcississtic and sociopathy disorders are treatable. so just throwing someone behind bars is a punishment. it doesn't treat the cause.


why are you so surprised?


 
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Shadow Wolf

Certified People sTabber & Business Owner
That was never said or implied. They question is if mental illness is common among the criminal.
It is, as the social and state response is go basically use jails and prisons instead of running and funding treatment facilities, group homes, and assisted living. Amd we tend to assume one family is going to have the knowledge amd resources available for dealing woth and coping with mental illness.
 
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