There is no scientific basis to deny the possibility of God, just as there is no scientific basis to deny the possibility of leprechauns or lizard-men from Mars. God is unevidenced, hence, His existence is logically unsupportable.
All reasoning, knowledge, observations lead to God. Nothing leads to the leprechauns. How can you make such an irrelevant comparison?
All relative entities are manifestations of the absolute, relative entities get its definition only as it relates to the absolute.
Without the absolute, there is nothing to give rise to probabilities, everything we see is a probability that may or may not materialize, everything we see is a change, a change is only a change as it relates to an existing state. If there was nothing at the beginning then there is nothing now, in other words, there is nothing to exert a change or give rise to a probability. Without the non-contingent origin, absolutely no contingent entity can be explained.
Even the universe in its entirety is a contingent entity (a change), if the universe always existed, then the universe would be the brute fact/non-contingent entity that gives rise to everything, but it's not, the universe has a beginning, the universe is a contingent change, there must be an influence to exert the change that took place at a specific point in time 14 billion years ago. The physical realm, which started with the Big Bang do not constitute all aspects of the absolute reality. Reality must have a non-contingent aspect beyond the Big Bang/physical realm. This aspect is necessarily supernatural. If we understand/accept that the existence of this aspect of reality is logically necessary, then next question is what is it? And what can we know about it? See # 1851
Unattainable knowledge is no knowledge. How can we know the attributes of something completely speculative?
I didn’t say Unattainable knowledge, I said Unattainable
evidence through observation/experimentation for the
NATURE of God (not his existence), as we previously discussed, knowledge is not limited to observation/experimentation.
Noöne's claiming it's magic. An observed effect is evidence. When no other mechanism of effect is known, this strengthens the evidence. It does not confirm dark matter.
You didn’t get it, it's an analogy, the claim of magic is yours.
Even so the most abundant existence in our universe is assumed to be the totally invisible dark matter and dark energy which constitute about 96% of what’s out there in the universe, yet the intrinsic nature of dark matter is totally mysterious and unattainable, but
we logically infer its existence because otherwise various astrophysical observations would not be explainable by currently accepted theories.
We infer the presence of something of a totally unknown nature that can’t be understood or observed because we demand an explanation.
The point of this analogy is to demonstrate that the inference of a mysterious, invisible, unknown causal influence has nothing to do with a claim of magic and has everything to do with logic.
The question is, if our pursuit of an explanation for astrophysical observations drives our logical inference that the existence of an invisible unknown dark energy is logically necessary to exert an observed causal influence, shouldn’t we similarly pursue an explanation for the causal influence that forced dark matter itself to existence? Can we merely stop at the preceding domino and fool ourselves that we have an ultimate explanation. Is that logical? Don’t logic necessities that without the first domino, the entire chain reaction is not possible?
God’s nature is mysterious, and unattainable but we see an exerted influence exhibited in the universe/physical realm in its entirety with various observed effects of not only matter, but also consciousness, intelligence, order, morals values, etc. all these relative entities must be rooted in a cause. This cause is not the immediately preceding domino;
it’s the absolute first one. Demanding such a root cause of the observed domino effect has nothing to do with a claim of magic and has everything to do with logic, even if the nature of the cause is unattainable.
Causality works at different levels, but the logic is the same. If we accept causality as a premise, we have to pursue it to the absolute end. We cannot pick and choose.
Evolution and abiogenesis have natural mechanisms that account for them, even if the processes are not yet completely understood.
Evolution is nothing but an adaptation of an organism to fit in an environment as a function of directed mutation, there is no such thing as tiktaalik transforming to a human being. It’s nothing more than a historical narrative.
If you talk about a fact, you may claim that it is not completely understood but this is not the case with abiogenesis, it's only an unevidenced hypothesis. See #1850
"Goddidit" doesn't even claim a mechanism, and there is virtually no evidence of any mechanic, ergo: magic!
See# 490, Levels of Causality.
Darwin's Illusion | Page 25 | Religious Forums
You may claim or get some understanding of a mechanism only at the first level of causality (level C). Beyond that, it’s no longer possible.
” The dark energy did it” doesn’t claim a mechanism, does it? It only claims an unknown influence not a mechanism, do you understand?
What is the mechanism through which the dark energy that acts between galaxies or the strong nuclear force that act between subatomic particles (or any natural force for that matter) exerts its influence on matter? It's never a mechanism, it's always an unknown observed influence.
If you go a step further in the hierarchy of causality, what is the mechanism that caused dark matter to exist? Do you understand the need for an absolute origin that exists by virtue of its mere essence? Without it, the entire chain reaction of cause/effect is not possible. You need the first domino not merely the preceding one. Without the first domino, there is absolutely no domino effect of any kind.
Dark energy is no more evidence of a conscious or intentional "higher cause" than matter or gravity are.
Didn't you just claim we knew nothing about its intrinsic nature?
There is nothing special about dark energy as explained above; it’s only an analogy of how the logic applies.
We know nothing about the intrinsic nature of dark energy, we only observe or logically understand its influence.
That’s why it’s reasonable to infer that “something” is exerting that influence.
If we observe consciousness, intelligence, rationality, morals, values, purpose, order, matter and a physical realm in its entirety
, isn’t it reasonable to infer that “something” is exerting that influence? Again, it’s not about the preceding domino, it’s about the first one.
The existence of that “something” is a logical necessity, yet its nature/essence is not known but we may infer attributes of that “something” through the observations of the exerted influences itself.
If all aggregates of consciousness that we may observe are caused changes (relative entities), not a brute fact, wouldn’t be reasonable to infer that the causal influence of it exhibits higher level of consciousness?
Same is true, for morals, values, intelligence, power, abilities to exert influences, etc., wouldn’t be reasonable to infer that the causal influence of it exhibits higher level of such attributes? A greater doesn’t come from the lesser; the lesser is rooted in the greater.
That presupposes our sensory experience of an "arrow of time" is accurate. It is not.
The "arrow of time" is not relevant, since time itself ceases to exist beyond the Big Bang which necessarily refutes infinite regression.
Infinite regression of cause/effect is not only a logical fallacy but scientifically not possible. Infinite regression demands no beginning. The Big Bang is a beginning point, beyond which there is no time space, matter, radiation or any physical entity of any kind.
I believe in physical science, biological science, social science, mathematics, philosophy, logic and
every legitimate source of knowledge. How is that against the existence of God?
The modern scientific method itself emerged during the Islamic golden age as inspired by religious beliefs. There is no contradiction as you might think.
Cause doesn't always preceed effect. An effect may not need a cause at all.
Cause and effect are inseparable, if you break the bond between cause and effect, the entire scientific method absolutely collapses. If you’re not aware of a cause, it doesn’t mean the cause doesn’t exist. You either accept causality as a fundamental principle or reject it but you cannot pick and choose.
Don’t you see the irony of your claim to deny causality on scientific basis while I’m insisting on it on religious basis? But the establishment of causality as a fundamental principle is not only based on religious basis, not at all, it's definitely logical and scientific as well.
If you believe “effect may not need a cause at all”, then what are your reasons not to believe in magic poofs? But no, there is no such thing as uncaused effect.
Its effects are within the domain of my awareness. It's nature and mechanisms remain unknown.
Exactly, effects within the domain of your awareness are evidence of a necessary causal influence even if the nature and mechanisms are not known.
There is really too little that we may possibly get to know. Only if we understand it.
So, in the absence of evidence, why invent an invisible magician at all?
Neither the evidence is absent, nor anyone is inventing an invisible magician. I’m saying logic necessitates the existence of causal influence of an unknown nature.
“Unknown nature” is not equal to “invisible magician”. It’s only your false imagination of something that you neither understand nor have any knowledge of.
The only one talking about magic is you as you claim that cause doesn't need to precede effect, isn’t that your own definition of “magic poof”?