The Church didn't just pull it out of the air.
I know that... but my understanding is that it was NEVER tied to a dogma, but was always reffered to as a "gift" or the like...
It was theologically and biblically defended from the beginning.
???
Most early Bishops were married.... and while some might argue that celibacy is the objectively superior state, this does not mean that it is for everyone. Christ seemed to imply this when he says,
"Not all men can accept this precept, but only those to whom it is given. . . . There are those who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to receive this let him receive it" (Matt. 19:11–12).
In addition, celibacy is not the superior state for all people. Aquinas states,
" Though virginity is better than conjugal continence, a married person may be better than a virgin for two reasons. First, on the part of chastity itself; if to wit, the married person is more prepared in mind to observe virginity, if it should be expedient, than the one who is actually a virgin. Secondly, because perhaps the person who is not a virgin has some more excellent virtue" (Summa Theologiae I:152:4).
So... gift, not dogma.... or am I not understanding what you mean?
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**EDIT**
We might be coming from separate points of view concerning what "dogma" is... I would loosely define it in this context as "religiously motivated" rather than "unalterably religiously motivated."
Gotcha now.