Hi.
I have a few questions (based on JW's teachings) for my JW friends :
1) What scriptural evidence is there to support JW's teaching that the "day" in Genesis was not a literal 24 hours? Please do not quote 2 Peter (and others) which only tells us that a "day" can have different meanings than "24 hours" (we all know that). What I am looking for is scriptural reason for rejecting that the "day" in Genesis is not a 24hour day.
2) IF the writer had wanted to convey that the "day" mentioned in Genesis was similiar to a 24 hour day as we know it, how, in your opinion, would be the clearest way that the writer could have written the verses?
3) What, in your opinion, is the significance of the writer of Genesis keep using the words "And there came to be evening and there came to be morning" before mentioning " a [x] day?"
4) I have heard someone suggested that anytime a number (or reference to a number) is used before the word "day" then the "day" is always a literal 24 hours. Can you think of any example (outside of Genesis) that would suggest this ascertion is incorrect? I really dont think it is correct but I am yet to find a situation which would prove it wrong.
Thanks in advance!
I have a few questions (based on JW's teachings) for my JW friends :
1) What scriptural evidence is there to support JW's teaching that the "day" in Genesis was not a literal 24 hours? Please do not quote 2 Peter (and others) which only tells us that a "day" can have different meanings than "24 hours" (we all know that). What I am looking for is scriptural reason for rejecting that the "day" in Genesis is not a 24hour day.
2) IF the writer had wanted to convey that the "day" mentioned in Genesis was similiar to a 24 hour day as we know it, how, in your opinion, would be the clearest way that the writer could have written the verses?
3) What, in your opinion, is the significance of the writer of Genesis keep using the words "And there came to be evening and there came to be morning" before mentioning " a [x] day?"
4) I have heard someone suggested that anytime a number (or reference to a number) is used before the word "day" then the "day" is always a literal 24 hours. Can you think of any example (outside of Genesis) that would suggest this ascertion is incorrect? I really dont think it is correct but I am yet to find a situation which would prove it wrong.
Thanks in advance!