As I have addressed several times at length, there was an earlier Jesus movement that did not believe in the resurrection. Paul was considered to be a johnny come lately upstart trying to introduce strange new ideas by trying to weasel himself in as an Apostle. It sounds like this movement included Peter. Recall that Mark, in possession of some very legitimate sounding early stories about Jesus, and who tradition says got his stories from Peter, ends his Gospel with an empty tomb and no risen Jesus in sight.
You reject a PhD historian yet reference some movement scholars all say we know noting about?
As if this makes any point at all?
Carrier claims that there were lots of savior dying/rising demigods, all of them named Savior (which I have shown is not what Jesus means) yet never names a single one. Paul wanted the death of Jesus and the claim of resurrection to be the guarantee of a future resurrection, a popular notion then going around. He made the story up on that basis. No need for prior myths.
Sorry, dying/rising savior Gods were a trend. Elements change in each cult, that's what religious syncretism means. Each new group makes modifications. It's still a trend. I already sourced the book that covers the blending of Hellenistic ideas with each region.
Also:
"The very concept of an eschatological messiah and an end-times resurrection of the dead are actually Zoroastrian (as are belief in a burning hell, and a Satan as God’s adversary), imported into Judaism by cultural diffusion just a few centuries before Christianity arose."
But Carrier never wants to understand actual context. He just wants to quote mine individual words to support crazy ideas, which derive from him taking the KJV mistranslation as accurate because he did not know Greek.
The truth is that the messiah being a descendant of David is exactly what the Jews in Rome would expect to hear and definitely how they would understand Paul to be saying. All of Carrier’s arguments fail big time as I have repeatedly shown. It is perfectly clear what Paul meant. But Carrier, not knowing Greek, thought that when the KJV said ‘made’ it was the real meaning. When it was made very clear to him that this was not the case, he jumped over to ‘but when Paul says it, it means manufactured’, which as I have repeatedly shown and continue to show below is simply not the case. But admitting he was wrong would mean not selling his books anymore, so it HAS to mean that.
Wrong again. Carrier makes the argument we cannot be sure but still counts that in favor of historicity.
The fact that you continue with this idea that Carrier cannot read Greek puts you in the conspiracy theory group.
Your insistence that Carrier "fails big time" because you have your own speculation is also crank.
His blog post allows comments. Why don't you take your conspiracy to the source? Why do you think I gave his messenger?
Not only have I read it, I have quoted from it and criticized it. But you not only ignored that but you deny that I even did that. After all, how can anyone doubt the Gospel according to St. Carrier?
Right, you read Carrier's book but then sourced an old encyclodedia article on dying/rising demigods which Carrier already has chapters on with full source. It completely destroys that ridiculous article. Yet, you sourced it. You are lying, you did not read anything.
As I have repeatedly shown, every single use of the term ‘the seed of so and so’ in the NT and in the Jewish scriptures very plainly refers to descendants. There are only 8 uses of many hundreds in the Jewish scriptures and none at all in the NT of the word to mean ‘sperm’ and they all refer to ritual purity after ejaculation and to putting your sperm in the wrong person. The Jewish Christians Paul is talking to would know perfectly well that the messiah will be a descendant of David and I have documented that this is definitely the case. There is no way the Jews Paul is writing to would take it any other way.
But Carrier did not know Greek and took the KJV incorrect translation of ‘became’ into ‘made’ and came up with his crazy word game idea for selling books. Notice that in the article you linked, Carrier finally admits that the word does not mean ‘manufactured’ as he originally claimed but ‘became’.
It is an indisputable fact that when Paul says this, he uses a word he only uses of manufactured, not birthed bodies (ginomai, referring to Adam’s body: 1 Corinthians 15:45, in the very context of describing Adam’s body; and our future resurrection bodies: 1 Corinthians 15:37, which, as for Adam, God will manufacture for us).
Carrier first says that modern translators are using the wrong word. Now he tries to claim that Christian scribes tried to change the manuscripts themselves. There is absolutely no evidence for that anywhere and as I have shown, the 4th century Codex Sinaiticus, the earliest copy of Romans 1 in existence, definitely says ‘become’ not ‘make’. Not does any Greek manuscript I can find use the word for ‘born’. This is just Carrier flimflamming (aka lying).
Had you bothered to even read just a blog post you would know he already said "came to be" was the best literal translation? But again, he does not count this against historicity.
He also clearly worked with the original Greek. Acknowledging this would make you a conspiracy theorist so I guess you cannot go there.
None of the most literal translations of the Bible, from the Protestant King James edition (whether original or updated), or even the old Catholic
Douay–Rheims edition, to the even more modern
Darby, YLT, and BLB, render Paul’s word as “born.” They always say “made” or “came.”
Because that’s what the Greek says. In fact, “came” is less literal a translation than “made,” as a more literal translation would be “came to be,” and Paul’s usage with respect to other bodies (the first of all bodies, Adam’s, and our future resurrection bodies) always employs it in the sense of “made, manufactured.” And Paul should be translated in light of how Paul himself speaks and uses words.
What Did Paul Mean in Romans 1:3? • Richard Carrier