sandy whitelinger
Veteran Member
How about Merriam-Webster's definitions.By whose definition and to whom or what do they not apply? God does enough ipugning on his own without any help from me.
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
How about Merriam-Webster's definitions.By whose definition and to whom or what do they not apply? God does enough ipugning on his own without any help from me.
Nor rape.Indeed. Something without a penis, testicles, or sperm can't inseminate anything.
I understand that some experts consider Mary to be as young as 12 years old. However when God or the holy spirit inseminated Mary without her consent, was this rape?
But God is a spirit so He cannot have contact with Mary physically
Well I could be open to the possiblity that Mary may not have been raped. However, if there was no physical contact, how was it physically possible for Mary to concieve Jesus in the first place?
I guess I'm having trouble understanding why Christianity especially in this day and age would accept this to be fact.
But anyway, I guess I'm sort of sliding off topic here......
I would have to agree with the contention, that if she did NOT have a choice, then she was violated... on some levels and undeniably with respect to her womb being hijacked... to fulfill the prophecy... UNLESS there is HOPEFULLY something that validates that she actually had 'ability and permission' to either accept or reject the advances of God's 'favor' for her.
Seems to me that you should really read the whole thread before you start asking questions that make you look like an idiot.If there is no indication that Mary had a choice, then the Christian's rendering of God falls short of my mere mortal understanding of Divine... which would grant Free Will...
Just one point :
According to Roman Catholics ,Mary was chosen at the point of her own conception ( the immaculate conception) she was born without original sin ( full of Grace)in order to be the vessel that carried Christ.
However, if there was no physical contact, how was it physically possible for Mary to concieve Jesus in the first place?
Seems to me that you should really read the whole thread before you start asking questions that make you look like an idiot.
perhaps if your question was not already answered in this thread long before you resurrected this thread....
Exactly. The Immaculate Conception has nothing whatsoever to do with the virgin birth except in this tangential sense.
Non-Catholics commonly think that it means being impregnated by the Holy Spirit when it does not and never has.
Nor rape.
your transference is duly noted.My, my aren't you the helpful sort. Are you anti-resurrection? Or are you merely an antagonistic idiot-sensor who likes to attempt to intimidate. in order to invoke censure?
Perhaps I am an idiot, because I do not see where my question has been answered...
Yes, you know, because posts #35, #44, #76, #83 in this very thread do not exist...Perhaps you meant my 're-transference' wherein it was you who displayed a compunction to bully as "redirection of feelings and desires and especially of those unconsciously retained from childhood toward a new object (as a psychoanalyst conducting therapy)" in quoting me : " If there is no indication that Mary had a choice, then the Christian's rendering of God falls short of my mere mortal understanding of Divine... which would grant Free Will.." Followed by your own remark : "Seems to me that you should really read the whole thread before you start asking questions that make you look like an idiot."
And how is mythology any different? Obviously the concept originated somewhere and has a basis in emotion.
Besides, I still say we need not be logical, especially when it comes to dealing with existential issues which are personal and emotional. Why always be logical? Myths are there to provide us with this stuff.