Shermana
Heretic
Thank you for revealing that you haven't read Revelation 1:1. Tis quite common for "Christians' to not have actually read the scriptures they claim to make bold assertions about, whether its laziness or ego or both I don't know, but you may want to actually consider reading the Bible before you say what it doesn't say:There is no such scripture.
Now maybe you DID read Revelation 1:1 and you have a different understanding of what "God gave Him" means. So here we see that God gave Jesus revelation, not only proving that Jesus had to be given revelation from God (i.e. He didn't know something that GOd knew) but it also shows that even after the ascension, they are still TWO DIFFERENT BEINGS.The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him
So feel free to explain what you think "God gave Him" means in this sense.
Moral of the story: Ressurected Jesus still doesn't know what "God" knows, and the authors used the word "God" to mean "Someone other than Jesus".
Wow, I guess that explains it (cough). So when the Voice says "This is my beloved son, of whom I am well pleased", that's just talking about people who don't know either then? Right.However if you were asking why Jesus still refers to the Father, the answer is that He is speaking to men who know the Father but don't necessarily know Jesus as well.
This was your response to the idea that they had two separate minds. So therefore you are calling the Book of Revelation Blasphemous since it says that God GAVE Jesus his revelation. Now while he was alive he said that he doesn't know what day or hour the Judgment will come, but here he is in his ressurected form and he STILL has to receive knowledge from the Father. I am very much thinking you have not actually read Revelation beyond the "Trinitarian" verses.No. This would be blashemy tantamount to saying there are two Gods. However the body is a separate entity
So please explain why Jesus receiving Revelation from God who GAVE it to him doesn't count as "two minds". Why would one need to receive knowledge from another person if they are the same mind?
Additionally, though you didn't mention this specifically, might as well say that there is no blasphemy in the concept that angels are in fact called gods and that the "Heavenly council" consists of beings that are called "gods" (i.e. "powers" in Hebrew). You'd be calling Hosea 12:2 and Psalm 136:2 blasphemous. You simply don't understand what "god" means. If my view that Jesus is a god is blasphemous, may I die a blasphmer's death this week. The word "Elohim" defacto is used to refer to Angelic beings. The word "God" often has an article to distinguish THE God from lesser beings called "gods".
Now what I don't believe is that there are two "God of the gods". If anything, Trinitarians are blasphemers for asserting that there are "3 gods in one">
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