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Did Jesus say he was God???

icebuddy

Does the devil lift Jesus up?
Some Questions i might have missed

Let me get this straight, you think there were no miracle workers whatsoever throughout the OT who weren't God in the flesh or do I misunderstand you?

i dont fully understand, but I would assume there where magic or tricks preformed of some kind...

Why did Moses not fall down at the name when he was told it? Was he more prepared?

Please site a passage so we can look at it... But my thinking on this would be that Jesus was full filling his prophesy of John 13:18-19 and thats why I pointed it out.

Again, he would have to say "I am I am" for your point to be valid. The name "I am" is a name, it's not a way of saying "I am God", it's a name. You'd have to say "I am I am".

At Exodus 3:14 we read in all bibles as it sums it all up: This is what you are to say to the Israelites: I Am has sent me to you. The Septuagint has Ego Eimi has sent me to you. (A book the Jews studied at the time Jesus said Ego Eimi)

in Love,
Tom
 

Philomath

Sadhaka
The Definition of a Omnist is the belief in all religions... Is this true?

Tom

I believe all religions have some powerful spiritual truths and great wisdom in them which can be very inspirational and moving, but they also contain a lot of human opinion, social politics, and outdated viewpoints. Beliefs and rules that made sense at one point in history but don’t apply as well in today’s world.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Jesus was not God or divine - he was simply a man. The stories and quotations from the Bible are all based on hearsay which was written about 300 years after his so called death. In order for them to be worth writing about they needed to sound extraordinary, so the stories have been embellished. They have also been translated into other languages and changed even since then, so none of it can be relied upon.

I believe God always can be relied upon which leaves you with nothing dependable in your statements.
 

Shermana

Heretic
Ro 9:5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.

That verse does not mean what you think it means. It's a Doxology.

Even your own translation does its best to avoid this totally abused verses's "Trinitarian" translation.

What part about "God blessed" don't you understand?

The Trinity Delusion: Romans 9:5

Another translation is:

"I am speaking the truth in Christ, I am not lying.... and from whom Christ according to the flesh. God who is over all be blessed to the ages. Amen." (Romans 9:5).
 
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BornAgain

Active Member
That verse does not mean what you think it means. It's a Doxology.

You are very right on this one. It’s a Doxology (from the*Greek*doxa "glory" + -logia, "saying") an expression of praise to Christ deity who is the subject of Paul’s writing.

What was that again?

You are admitting unconsciously what you were denying consciously.
 

BornAgain

Active Member
Even your own translation does its best to avoid this totally abused verses's "Trinitarian" translation.
According to your “angel’s theory”, angels were created on the 2nd to 5th day of the creation in Genesis. Therefore, with this delusional angel’s theory of yours, you have claimed that Christ was just an angel of God. If Christ was just an angel then how could He say something like this,

Jn 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

Jn 17:24 Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.

"Before the creation of the world" is a further assertion of Christ's preexistence, but according to your delusional angel's theory Christ was created bet, the 2nd and 5th day of the creation in Genesis.

In Genesis it says,

Ge 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

Can you religiously forum-ly explain this?
 

BornAgain

Active Member
Another translation is:

"I am speaking the truth in Christ, I am not lying.... and from whom Christ according to the flesh. God who is over all be blessed to the ages. Amen." (Romans 9:5).
You just made it clearer to the readers who the subject is with this translation.

Who is the subject here again? Christ


Christ according to the flesh. Why according to the flesh?
Because he became flesh?

Jn 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

Why Paul need to say that, “Christ according to the flesh“- this is your twisted translation?

Because Christ was with God in the beginning,

Jn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Jn 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.
Jn 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

and not like your delusional angel’s theory creation on the 2nd or 5th day of the creation in Genesis.

Moses according to the flesh?

How about Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob according to the flesh?

How about all God’s prophets according to the flesh?

None of them were described as being “according to the flesh“ but only Christ, because Christ is God.

CHRIST WAS THE SHEKINAH GLORY OF GOD IN OPEN MANIFESTATION.

You can translate the word of God to satisfy your APPETITE, but the “TRUTH” you cannot deny, because the TRUTH IS CHRIST.
 
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gzusfrk

Christian
My two cents. Jesus is My God and savior of mankind, I am saved Thru HIm. But He is the Son of God, not the father. In the last letter to the seven church's to laodicea in chapter 3 of Revelation verse 21 Jesus said you must overcome as I have overcome, and I don't believe God the Father ever had any thing to overcome. imo
 

BornAgain

Active Member
Even your own translation does its best to avoid this totally abused verses's "Trinitarian" translation.

Ge 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

Jn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

According to you delusional angel’s theory, Christ, was just an angel of God, and was created in the 2nd to 5th of the creation in Genesis.

To my understanding, “in the beginning” is like before the start of the creation of heaven and earth. In other words, there is no heaven and earth yet before the beginning. For example, before one starts a project, one can say, before one starts anything on the project, “let’s begin”

Therefore, the train of thought should be, in the beginning, and then, the creation of heaven and earth.

So, according to John 1:1, before God created the heaven and earth, Christ was with God already, but according to your twisted theory, Christ did not exist until the 2nd to 5th day of the creation in Genesis.

Now, the mother of all questions is, who was “THE WORD” that was with God in the John 1:1, if Christ existed -ACCORDING TO YOUR TWISTED ANGEL'S THEORY- on the 2nd to 5th day of the creation in Genesis?

Was there another creation before the creation in Genesis. You could start with this theory, but you will have to change the word “In the beginning” in Genesis with perhaps the “second beginning”, but who will buy this another theory.
 
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BornAgain

Active Member
My two cents. Jesus is My God and savior of mankind, I am saved Thru HIm. But He is the Son of God, not the father. In the last letter to the seven church's to laodicea in chapter 3 of Revelation verse 21 Jesus said you must overcome as I have overcome, and I don't believe God the Father ever had any thing to overcome. imo
Rev 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
Rev 3:22 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.

“even as I also overcame” past tense referring to His earthly ministry.

Jn 16:33 These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world.

“and am set down with my Father in His throne” present tense referring to,

Phil 2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
Phil 2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
Phil 2:11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

CHRIST IS THE SON OF GOD AND THAT IS THE REASON WHY HE IS GOD.
No offense on CAPS.

When Christ said,
Jn 10:30 I and my Father are one.
Jn 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

The Jews replied that the issue was not the quality of his works but his blasphemous claim to be God. Had Jesus not meant to convey a claim to deity, he undoubtedly would have protested the action of the Jews by
declaring that they had misunderstood him.

Jn 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
*
Can you see the meaning of God in verse 33 and the Son of God in verse 36? They have the same meaning. When Christ said, “I and my Father are ONE” and the Jews said, “makest thyself God”, and Christ said, “I am the Son of God”, to Christ this makes no difference.

The Lord Jesus Christ did not deny His deity as God, because He is the Son of God.

Please read 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 for better understanding of the Son of God.
 
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