I countered that I never said it was a slam dunk. I claim it was a significant or majority view from the earliest time periods. However what view was held by how many at certain time sis not really an argument unless a majority and only then it is indicative not proof.
The reality, as mentioned before, is that majorities really don't much count when it comes to whether a particular narrative or theological concept are true in reality. Where it can and often does count is what Joseph Campbell often stated, namely that "the myth became the reality" (note that "myth" does not mean falsehood in this context).
The bible says Jesus emptied himself, etc..... These verses suggest emphatically that Christ voluntarily relinquished to some of his divine capacity.
That is
a interpretation, not necessary
the interpretation. Another possibility is that it relates to Jesus' eventual death.
It was his multi function mission. He was to be an example to man, he was to be a visible representation of the father, he was the word, he was the messiah. To do all those he needed power but also the frailty of a human nature.
Whether he was "the word" or the "messiah" is highly conjectural, but that goes beyond the scope of what we're discussing. However, this is what the "N.T." does say, so I can accept it as far as that's concerned, but this still really has nothing to do with Jesus' supposed divinity.
You can't imagine all the reasons Jesus had to be Mary's biological son, Josephs' legal son. David's curses, God's promises to him, issues of legal genealogies, etc... were perfectly met by God's actions. Two very important points before I respond directly.
1. The Jewish authorities knew Christ's lineage, yet they never once challenged it. He had every pedigree claim to David's throne possible.
First of all, there's been long debate as to whether Matthew's and Luke's lineages actually do match, but if you do manage to check back in Numbers, you'll note that there are discrepancies, if my memory is correct. However, again, the issue at stake really isn't about whether Jesus was the messiah.
2. Only if Christ is messiah and kind of Israel was God's promise to David as to his throne fulfilled.
Again, not related. BTW, there is literally no way that Jesus can be linked through lineage back to David with ny certainty of being correct because the records were destroyed during the Babylonian exile, and only two of the tribes managed to keep their lineages intact, and David's line was not one of them. After the exile, members of the various tribes began to intermarry, thus making it even more impossible to tell whom was related to whom almost a thousand years earlier.
As to his birth. Prophecy, promise, and purpose required a genetic claim to the throne and a legal one that skipped the curse. Now if you allow that Mary had Christ then you must include the lack of a biological father.
This is probably the strongest card you have as, indeed, this is what the gospels say. Now are the authors saying this as supposed fact or is there some sort of symbolic accounting here? Hard to say. Either way, the idea of God impregnating a woman is logical to some gentiles but illogical to most Jews, and even some Christian theologians have sharply questioned whether it can or should be taken literally.
If I say "God is my Father", what's your next question? Do you just accept that I mean biological father or maybe that I am a "son of God", which we Jews traditionally called ourselves? The terminology "son of God" is quite possibly what the authors capitalized on to claim Jesus as being
of God. I think as time went on this became more and more accepted in terms of supposedly
being God, but other evidence also points to some disputes that continued on into the 2nd century church and beyond dealing with this.
On top of this, one has to remember that the gospels were written at least two decades after Jesus was martyred, and we well know through history how that often gets played out. An example is that after Gandhi was assassinated, many Hindus began to deify him. However, on many occasions Gandhi had made it clear that he was merely a mortal man.
This perfectly accounts for a human physical nature but a divine soul/spirit. IOW unless you cherry pick the narrative apart by arbitrary means you have every ingredient necessary for a divine person in human form. There must be at least a dozen necessities God met in this one birth. I do not think anyone at the time smart enough to have made up a lie this complex. You mention problems that this arrangement causes but I will not try and guess them.
OK, this is one area that I alluded to in a previous post that I said I would eventually get into, but I had to wait for you or someone else to bring it up.
Is the "Holy Spirit" as covered in the "N.T." the same as "God's Spirit" as mentioned in the Tanakh (I capitalized the "S", whereas in most Bibles I've seen it isn't capitalized)? If it is, let me just mention that we never called our name for God and God's Spirit duality (as compared to "trinitarian") or any other words like that. IOW, it simply was viewed as "the spirit of God".
Secondly, exactly what is "spirit" to begin with? I've seen many, many discussions on this, but there doesn't seem to be any particular agreement beyond that it supposedly goes beyond our senses. But if that's the case, then how do we know it exists? For example, is the HS with you right now? with me? How can one tell one way or another?
So, what exactly is the HS, and does it somehow go beyond "God's Spirit", thus deserving to be called as if it were some sort of separate entity in the trinitarian approach?
Agreed. However, remember that being preachy isn't evidence.