Okay, so once again, you're saying that Paul is referring to his own epistles as scripture, and not even in the right chronological date.
And once again, David is called "Lord" as well. The word "LORD "is interchanged with the Tetragrammaton, Jesus is "lord" in the same sense as his ancestor David, that is part of being "Christ".
I once again quote the NLT who correctly distinguishes in this case (though they are errorenous in other parts like "Don't speak their names").
It don't matter what I'm saying, unless you can prove acts 4:12 is wrong then your always gonna be wrong! And unless you can prove all my other verses are wrong then your never gonna be right!
Rom 10:1-16
(1) Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved.
(2) For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge.
(3) For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.
(4) For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
(5) For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.
(6) But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above
(7) Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.)
(8) But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;
(9) That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.
(10) For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
(11) For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.
(12) For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
(13) For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
(14) How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and
how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?
(15) And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!
(16) But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?
Hmm, this is defiantly Yeshua in verse 13!!! Verse 9 says to confess with thy mouth Yeshua! Then what does verse 14 say, how can we believe on him in context of verse 13 if we have not heard? Who are we suppose to believe on?(Jn 3:16) Then if we take this in the context of the whole bible (Acts 4:12) it must be talking about Yeshua!
Act 4:12
(12) Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
The bible commands us to invoke the name Yeshua!
Rom 10:12-13
(12)
For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for
the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
(13) For whosoever shall call upon the name of the
Lord shall be saved.
Lets compare scripture!
Gal 3:28
(28)
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
Col 3:11
(11)
Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.
Obviously the Lord in romans 10:12 is the same Lord in romans 10:9 and 10:13. The same Lord in romans 10:12 is the same Lord, Jesus Christ in Gal 3:28 and col 3:11..
You can't prove romans 10:11 is connected to verse 12 and even if you can i have proven you wrong!
