I would say 'yes'.
But I suppose the answer hinges on the nature of the 'experience'. Denys Tanner argues (in The Darkness of God) from pseudoDionysius, The Cloud of Unknowing, Eckhart and others that their mystical experience was a transcendent, 'non-experiential' knowing a profound apophatism. Eckhart, for example, never speaks of a personal mystic experience, and his writings are, for that reason, regarded as 'speculative mysticism' that is not to devalue them, but simply adverts to the fact that he speaks of that which transcends 'experience' indeed, its axiomatic that, at this level, the self is part of the illusion.
I view the 'experience' as a sensory reaction to a fundamentally meta-experience. This can take many forms all of which can be explained away as hallucination voices, visions and the like. Each must be judged on its merits as to whether it's an hallucination, or a psychosomatic 'reaction'. St Paul's 'blindness' can be seen as a psychic as well as psychosomatic reaction. In Galatians, by his own account he withdrew to Arabia for some time (perhaps as long as 14 years), before continuing to be received into the Christian community in Damascus. Similar 'reactions' are recorded in both Scripture and Tradition. The prophet Ezekiel, for example, would go into a catatonic state, and many of the Church's mystics suffered epilepsy, for example. The question then remains, was the mystical experience a result of the epilepsy, or vice versa?
According to the mystic St Katherine of Sienna, Christ spoke to her and said "I am He Who Is, you are she who is not." A profoundly apophatic statement, but if she experienced the reality of these words (and how can one not, when spoken by Christ?), then it would be hard, I imagine, to experience, let alone explain, such a 'not-being-ness'.