Does a man have a Word?

[calm]

Does a man have his own word like God has? And if you say yes, is a man his word himself?
So could one say: "The word of this man is with him and he himself is his word." ?
And what is the difference between the Word of God and the Word of a man? What can a man do through his Word and what can God do through his Word? Would you agree if one said: "God can create through his Word, he only has to speak as he did in the beginning, by saying: "Let there be...". But man, by his word, can only curse and bless; nevertheless the word of a man is mighty, for by his word he can destroy himself by sin, but also save himself by good."
Do you think one can sin through his Word?
And if someone would say: "God has begotten his Word.", how would you imagine and explain this? Can a man explain and imagine this at all?
And if God has begotten His Word, is His Word still one with Him? Is the begotten Word of God now a person? Would you say: " Yes, he is now a person, so there are now 2 gods" or rather: " Yes, he is now a person, but still one with his father who begat him, because he is a part of him; a part of him that came out of him".
Is the human brain even able to understand that?

 

[shunyadragon]

The enigma and paradox that makes Christian orthodoxy unpatible.

 

[The Anointed]

Does a man have his own word like God has? And if you say yes, is a man his word himself?
So could one say: "The word of this man is with him and he himself is his word." ?
And what is the difference between the Word of God and the Word of a man? What can a man do through his Word and what can God do through his Word? Would you agree if one said: "God can create through his Word, he only has to speak as he did in the beginning, by saying: "Let there be...". But man, by his word, can only curse and bless; nevertheless the word of a man is mighty, for by his word he can destroy himself by sin, but also save himself by good."
Do you think one can sin through his Word?
And if someone would say: "God has begotten his Word.", how would you imagine and explain this? Can a man explain and imagine this at all?
And if God has begotten His Word, is His Word still one with Him? Is the begotten Word of God now a person? Would you say: " Yes, he is now a person, so there are now 2 gods" or rather: " Yes, he is now a person, but still one with his father who begat him, because he is a part of him; a part of him that came out of him".
Is the human brain even able to understand that?

I am spirit, I am mind, I am the unexpressed words within me, which are thoughts. I can be no more than 'WHO I AM,' And "Who I Am, is all the information that has been taken into my brain through the senses of this physical body, in which 'I' the spirit=mind is continuing to develop.

This body that you see it isn't really me
It's but the womb in which I'm being formed
For I am Spirit, I am mind and it's the only place you'll find
'WHO I AM," until the day I'm finally born
For I will not be free until this body that you see
Has returned to the dust from which it's formed
It's then that I'll be born from this womb in which I'm formed
To carry on in life's eternal game. . . . . . . . .The Anointed.

Logos (WORD) Brahman (SPEECH) are the thoughts=Spirit, that manifests as the visible universe.

They are the essential divine reality of the universe, the eternal spirit from which all being originates and to which all must return at the close of each period of universal activity.

Pioneering physicist Sir James Jeans wrote: “The stream of knowledge is heading toward a non-mechanical reality; the universe begins to look more like a great thought than like a great machine. Mind no longer appears to be an accidental intruder into the realm of matter, we ought rather hail it as the creator and governor of the realm of matter. (R. C. Henry, “The Mental Universe”; Nature 436:29, 2005)

 

[Deeje]

Does a man have his own word like God has? And if you say yes, is a man his word himself?
So could one say: "The word of this man is with him and he himself is his word." ?
And what is the difference between the Word of God and the Word of a man? What can a man do through his Word and what can God do through his Word? Would you agree if one said: "God can create through his Word, he only has to speak as he did in the beginning, by saying: "Let there be...". But man, by his word, can only curse and bless; nevertheless the word of a man is mighty, for by his word he can destroy himself by sin, but also save himself by good."
Do you think one can sin through his Word?
And if someone would say: "God has begotten his Word.", how would you imagine and explain this? Can a man explain and imagine this at all?
And if God has begotten His Word, is His Word still one with Him? Is the begotten Word of God now a person? Would you say: " Yes, he is now a person, so there are now 2 gods" or rather: " Yes, he is now a person, but still one with his father who begat him, because he is a part of him; a part of him that came out of him".
Is the human brain even able to understand that?

Jesus is called "The Word" (Greek Logos) because he is God's representative or spokesman. His role as "The Word" is to convey God's words to mankind. He is the appointed "Mediator between God and men". How can he be God if he is the mediator?(1 Timothy 2:5)

In order to be "begotten", there has to be a time before that when Jesus in his pre-human form did not exist.

Revelation 3:14 says that he is "the beginning of God's creation." This is confirmed by Paul who said that he is "the firstborn of all creation". He is before all things. (Colossians 1:15-17)
The resurrected Jesus, who was in heaven at that time, calls his Father "my God" 4 times in Revelation 3:12. How does God have a God?

In view of that, nothing you have said here makes any sense.... sorry.

 

[The Anointed]

Jesus is called "The Word" (Greek Logos) because he is God's representative or spokesman. His role as "The Word" is to convey God's words to mankind. He is the appointed "Mediator between God and men". How can he be God if he is the mediator?(1 Timothy 2:5)

In order to be "begotten", there has to be a time before that when Jesus in his pre-human form did not exist.

Revelation 3:14 says that he is "the beginning of God's creation." This is confirmed by Paul who said that he is "the firstborn of all creation". He is before all things. (Colossians 1:15-17)
The resurrected Jesus, who was in heaven at that time, calls his Father "my God" 4 times in Revelation 3:12. How does God have a God?

In view of that, nothing you have said here makes any sense.... sorry.

Jesus is not the Logos God. But he does convey God's word to man kind.

In Deuteronomy 18: 18-19 ; God said to Moses; “I will send them a prophet like you from among their own people. I will put ‘MY WORDS’ into his mouth, and he will tell the people everything that I command him to say. He will speak in MY name, and I will punish those who refuse to obey ‘MY WORDS’ that he shall speak in MY NAME.

The people in the days of Jesus, knew that he was the one chosen to speak in the name of our Lord. On the day of his triumphant entry into Jerusalem, they strew his pathway with palm branches, while crying out; “Blessed is he, who comes in the name of the Lord.”

Luke on the other hand, tells us that Jesus was the son of Mary and her half-brother, Joseph the son of Alexander Helios or Heli.

Luke 3:23; (KJV) And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli.

The (AS WAS SUPPOSED) in brackets, was a later interpolation by those who believed the false teaching of the so-called virgin birth.

In the different translations of the KJV into Arabic, Afrikaan, Zulu, etc and even some of the more modern English translations, such as the Good News Catholic Study Edition Bible, the words (As was supposed) have been retained, but the brackets are removed, thus by, making those words appear to be the declaration of Luke, while the serious biblical students know that they were not written by Luke, but were a later interpolation and a corruption of the Holy Scriptures, by those Christians, who refuse to accept that Jesus was not a God who became a man, but a man, born of human parents, who was later CHOSEN by the Lord our saviour ‘The Son of Man,’ as his heir and successor.

You cannot see the invisible mind=spirit that is who I am: the only way you can know me, is to listen to my words, which are the expression of who I am.

When the Lord said through his chosen earthly host body ‘Jesus;’ “To have life eternal, you must eat of my body, etc,” Many followers were offended and left Jesus, but to those who remained, the Lord God our savior said through the mouth of Jesus; “Eating the fleshly body is of no use at all, it is the spirit that gives life and ‘MY WORDS,’ are spirit and life.”

It was the spirit, the words of the Lord with which the man Jesus was filled on the day of his baptism.

 

[Deeje]

Jesus is not the Logos God. But he does convey God's word to man kind.

I never said he was "the Logos God"......I said he was "the Logos" or "spokesman" for God. He is the appointed mediator between God and men.

In Deuteronomy 18: 18-19 ; God said to Moses; “I will send them a prophet like you from among their own people. I will put ‘MY WORDS’ into his mouth, and he will tell the people everything that I command him to say. He will speak in MY name, and I will punish those who refuse to obey ‘MY WORDS’ that he shall speak in MY NAME.

The people in the days of Jesus, knew that he was the one chosen to speak in the name of our Lord. On the day of his triumphant entry into Jerusalem, they strew his pathway with palm branches, while crying out; “Blessed is he, who comes in the name of the Lord.”

Yes I agree with that. As the Logos he did speak in the name of his Father.

Luke on the other hand, tells us that Jesus was the son of Mary and her half-brother, Joseph the son of Alexander Helios or Heli.

Luke 3:23; (KJV) And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli.

The (AS WAS SUPPOSED) in brackets, was a later interpolation by those who believed the false teaching of the so-called virgin birth.

What nonsense is this?
Since human reproduction is usually the result of the union of a man and a woman, the birth of Jesus was assumed to be the natural result of the marriage of Joseph and Mary. Only Mary and Joseph knew that this was God's son, not Joseph's biological child. But he was raised by this human father, (this couple specially chosen by God to raise this child to adulthood.)

Matthew 1:18-25....
"Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: when His mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child by the Holy Spirit. And Joseph her husband, being a righteous man and not wanting to disgrace her, planned to send her away secretly. But when he had considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “ Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; for the Child who has been conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.” Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet: “ Behold, the virgin shall be with child and shall bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which translated means, “ God with us .” And Joseph awoke from his sleep and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took Mary as his wife, but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus." (NASB)

Joseph respected his wife's condition and did not commence marital relations until after she gave birth to this child of a miracle....God's son....not Joseph's.

...while the serious biblical students know that they were not written by Luke, but were a later interpolation and a corruption of the Holy Scriptures, by those Christians, who refuse to accept that Jesus was not a God who became a man, but a man, born of human parents, who was later CHOSEN by the Lord our saviour ‘The Son of Man,’ as his heir and successor.

Serious students of the Bible will never reach that conclusion because it negates the entire basis for Christ's ransom sacrifice. Jesus could never be a son of Adam.

You cannot see the invisible mind=spirit that is who I am: the only way you can know me, is to listen to my words, which are the expression of who I am.

I'm afraid that psyche wards throughout the world are full of people who think like that. How do you convince all those people that they are deluded? How do you know that you are not deluded? I have no reason to doubt your sincerity, but your interpretation of scripture is seriously flawed IMO.

When the Lord said through his chosen earthly host body ‘Jesus;’ “To have life eternal, you must eat of my body, etc,” Many followers were offended and left Jesus, but to those who remained, the Lord God our savior said through the mouth of Jesus; “Eating the fleshly body is of no use at all, it is the spirit that gives life and ‘MY WORDS,’ are spirit and life.”

It was the spirit, the words of the Lord with which the man Jesus was filled on the day of his baptism.

Jesus was a sinless man....not meaning that he simply lived a sinless life, but that there was no sin in him, as all of us have inherited from Adam. (Romans 5:12) He was in every way human, but as Adam's equivalent, he offered the ransom price to redeem the entire human race by offering his perfect life for the perfect life Adam lost for us.

Jesus received the holy spirit at his baptism, because he was anointed as Messiah and his powers had to be obvious to his listeners to elevate him above all the false Christ's who were foretold to come. His was not an empty claim, but backed up by God himself. He attracted thousands of people to hear his words and to witness his miraculous abilities.

No one could do what Jesus did....and when his disciples received the holy spirit at Pentecost, these too had the credentials to continue teaching in his name, leading the people back to God.

 

[The Anointed]

I never said he was "the Logos God"......I said he was "the Logos" or "spokesman" for God. He is the appointed mediator between God and men.



Yes I agree with that. As the Logos he did speak in the name of his Father.



What nonsense is this?
Since human reproduction is usually the result of the union of a man and a woman, the birth of Jesus was assumed to be the natural result of the marriage of Joseph and Mary. Only Mary and Joseph knew that this was God's son, not Joseph's biological child. But he was raised by this human father, (this couple specially chosen by God to raise this child to adulthood.)

Matthew 1:18-25....
"Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: when His mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child by the Holy Spirit. And Joseph her husband, being a righteous man and not wanting to disgrace her, planned to send her away secretly. But when he had considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “ Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; for the Child who has been conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.” Now all this took place to fulfill what was spoken by the Lord through the prophet: “ Behold, the virgin shall be with child and shall bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel,” which translated means, “ God with us .” And Joseph awoke from his sleep and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took Mary as his wife, but kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus." (NASB)

Joseph respected his wife's condition and did not commence marital relations until after she gave birth to this child of a miracle....God's son....not Joseph's.



Serious students of the Bible will never reach that conclusion because it negates the entire basis for Christ's ransom sacrifice. Jesus could never be a son of Adam.



I'm afraid that psyche wards throughout the world are full of people who think like that. How do you convince all those people that they are deluded? How do you know that you are not deluded? I have no reason to doubt your sincerity, but your interpretation of scripture is seriously flawed IMO.



Jesus was a sinless man....not meaning that he simply lived a sinless life, but that there was no sin in him, as all of us have inherited from Adam. (Romans 5:12) He was in every way human, but as Adam's equivalent, he offered the ransom price to redeem the entire human race by offering his perfect life for the perfect life Adam lost for us.

Jesus received the holy spirit at his baptism, because he was anointed as Messiah and his powers had to be obvious to his listeners to elevate him above all the false Christ's who were foretold to come. His was not an empty claim, but backed up by God himself. He attracted thousands of people to hear his words and to witness his miraculous abilities.

No one could do what Jesus did....and when his disciples received the holy spirit at Pentecost, these too had the credentials to continue teaching in his name, leading the people back to God.

Deuteronomy 18: 18-19; YHVH, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, says to Moses; "I will send them a prophet like you from among their own people; I will put MY WORDS in his mouth, and he and he shall speak to them all that I command, and whosoever will not heed MY WORDS, which he shall speak in MY NAME, I will punish, etc.

Peter confirms that Jesus was that man, when, concerning the man Jesus, he says in. Acts 3: 22; For Moses said; "The Lord your God will send you a prophet, just as he sent me, and he will be one of your own people, etc."

Did the people of his day believe that he was the Lord, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. The God of our ancestors? No, they did not, for on the day of his triumphant entry into Jerusalem, the people escorting him cried out, "BLESSED IS HE WHO COMES IN THE NAME OF THE LORD" Verifying that they believed Jesus to be the one that God had promised that he would choose from among the Israelites, and send to the people to speak in his name.

 

[Deeje]

Deuteronomy 18: 18-19; YHVH, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, says to Moses; "I will send them a prophet like you from among their own people; I will put MY WORDS in his mouth, and he and he shall speak to them all that I command, and whosoever will not heed MY WORDS, which he shall speak in MY NAME, I will punish, etc.

Peter confirms that Jesus was that man, when, concerning the man Jesus, he says in. Acts 3: 22; For Moses said; "The Lord your God will send you a prophet, just as he sent me, and he will be one of your own people, etc."

Did the people of his day believe that he was the Lord, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. The God of our ancestors? No, they did not, for on the day of his triumphant entry into Jerusalem, the people escorting him cried out, "BLESSED IS HE WHO COMES IN THE NAME OF THE LORD" Verifying that they believed Jesus to be the one that God had promised that he would choose from among the Israelites, and send to the people to speak in his name.

You are preaching to the converted here....I do not believe that Jesus is God. JW's do not believe in a trinity.

We believe that Jesus was sent from heaven to be born as a human child to pay the debt Adam left to his children.

We do not believe that Jesus was a son of Adam but as he said, he was "the son of God".....the 'prophet like Moses'.

 

[Thief]

Does a man have his own word like God has? And if you say yes, is a man his word himself?
So could one say: "The word of this man is with him and he himself is his word." ?
And what is the difference between the Word of God and the Word of a man? What can a man do through his Word and what can God do through his Word? Would you agree if one said: "God can create through his Word, he only has to speak as he did in the beginning, by saying: "Let there be...". But man, by his word, can only curse and bless; nevertheless the word of a man is mighty, for by his word he can destroy himself by sin, but also save himself by good."
Do you think one can sin through his Word?
And if someone would say: "God has begotten his Word.", how would you imagine and explain this? Can a man explain and imagine this at all?
And if God has begotten His Word, is His Word still one with Him? Is the begotten Word of God now a person? Would you say: " Yes, he is now a person, so there are now 2 gods" or rather: " Yes, he is now a person, but still one with his father who begat him, because he is a part of him; a part of him that came out of him".
Is the human brain even able to understand that?

Man is not defiled by what enters the mouth
but rather....by what comes out

the angelic will ask....What do you believe?
and your next spoken word will make all the difference

 

[j1i]

Does a man have his own word like God has? And if you say yes, is a man his word himself?
So could one say: "The word of this man is with him and he himself is his word." ?
And what is the difference between the Word of God and the Word of a man? What can a man do through his Word and what can God do through his Word? Would you agree if one said: "God can create through his Word, he only has to speak as he did in the beginning, by saying: "Let there be...". But man, by his word, can only curse and bless; nevertheless the word of a man is mighty, for by his word he can destroy himself by sin, but also save himself by good."
Do you think one can sin through his Word?
And if someone would say: "God has begotten his Word.", how would you imagine and explain this? Can a man explain and imagine this at all?
And if God has begotten His Word, is His Word still one with Him? Is the begotten Word of God now a person? Would you say: " Yes, he is now a person, so there are now 2 gods" or rather: " Yes, he is now a person, but still one with his father who begat him, because he is a part of him; a part of him that came out of him".
Is the human brain even able to understand that?

If all the trees on earth were pens, filled by the ocean, with seven more oceans besides, the Words of God would not run out. God is Majestic and Wise.

I see that Allah Almighty hears the call of the servants and fulfills their aspirations
(God is not stingy) nor helpless
It fulfills wishes for the kind mercies who offer goodness
He helps criminals if they ask for amnesty and want to correct their mistakes honestly and sincerely

If God answered the prayer of all creatures and gave each one what he wishes
This will not diminish the property of God except as the needle lacks water if you enter the sea and then get out
The needle is iron and will not relate to the ocean water