Roman Catholicism is a cult of Christianity. Therefore what the RC system teaches has to be very carefully matched with what the Holy Bible teaches. For one example the WHOLE Bible is totally against IDOL or icon worship or veneration or bowing to idols and icons. So when they teach people to bow before the statues of Mary or Jesus or the Saints, it's totally sinful.
Now what matters in sexual relationships is that they should be in accordance with the teachings of the Bible and only the Bible if one wants to follow Jesus Christ as thier Lord, God and Personal Savior.
Pl. read this:
Amplified Bible (AMP)
1 Corinthians 6:9Amplified Bible (AMP)
9 Do you not know that the unrighteous
and the wrongdoers will not inherit
or have any share in the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived (misled): neither the impure
and immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor those who participate in
homosexuality,
Please clarify what about 1 Corinthians 6: 9 says that is pertinent to this thread.
Understanding this passage would be key to your point. What is that point?
"Adultery", has to do with marriage. "Idolatry", addresses your mention of "IDOL worship". Is there more than these two identifiers that completes your point?
Let me give you another passage (paraphrased): 1 Timothy 1: 10; "for the immoral, for perverts, for slave dealers, for liars, for perjurers, and for whatever else is opposed to sound teaching --" The New Testament, Hal Taussig, p. 355.
Essentially, 1 Corinthians 6: 9 is saying the same thing that 1 Timothy 1: 10 says. How then is there a difference in terms? I like TNT's paraphrase because it clearly represents what was meant to say. Digging deeper, some of which is misrepresented by so many versions of the NT makes for "liking" the TNT's paraphrase understandable.
There is a purpose behind the 2nd century author of 1 Timothy 1; "sound doctrine." Notice the similarities of this catalogue of vices. What common theme, do these vices represent. The AMP really loses that theme when it says "
homosexualtiy.
" You seem to emphasize homosexuality. Again, why? What does it have to do with this thread?
Homosexuality is not a good interpretation of the ancient Greek. Fact is, that Greek language leaves modern translators with an ambiguous translation. Further, that ambiguous translation, interpretation, "
homosexuality," does not fit this class of vices. The writer is making a point here and "homosexuality" is taken out of context.
"In 6, 12-20 the fornication referred to is probably that of religious prostitution, and accepted part of pagan culture in Rome." NAB, ed 1970, ff. 6, 9-20, p. 1264.
1 Corinthians 6:
" 9*+ Can you not realize that the unholy will not fall heir to the kingdom of God" Do not deceive yourselves: no fornicators, idolaters, or adulterers, no sodomites, 10* thieves, misers, or drunkards, no slanderers or robbers will inherit God's kingdom." NAB, edl, 1970, p. 1264.
"Sodomites," as defined by Ezekiel 16: 49.