THE HOOD APOLOGIST
Member
I didn't make claims about failed Bible prophecies, you did. I simply asked you to back up your claims, so I don't know where you're getting that from. Also why would I give you a prophecy to refute, when you're the one making the claim that there are prophecies that have failed. The burden of proof is on you.You misused that fallacy. When you make claims about the failed prophecies of the Bible the burden of proof is upon you. I made a general observation, that prophecies as seeing something in the future fail in the Bible. Almost all of them fail on being overly vague alone. A vague prophecy with a poorly defined timeline can be "fulfilled" multiple times. That alone makes it a failed prophecy since there is more than one supposedly valid interpretation for it. This article is a good read:
Biblical prophecies - RationalWiki
And it starts rather early on with reasonable standards for a prophecy. If this was not applied to your religion of choice you would probably agree to all of its stipulations. For example if a Muslim claimed a prophecy you would probably demand that:
In the above change "Bible" into the book of whatever faith one is referring to. I can't refute a specific prophecy unless you tell us what the prophecy is and what your interpretation of it is. The so called Daniel prophecy fails because there is no reasonable original date. What believers tend to do is to take the date of the event that they want to be the goal of the prophecy and work backwards and try to justify the date that they chose. This is not how prophecy is done.
- It must be accurate. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it is not accurate, because knowledge (and thus foreknowledge) excludes inaccurate statements. TLDR: It's true.
- It must be in the Bible. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it is not in the Bible, because Biblical by definition foreknowledge can only come from the Bible itself, rather than modern reinterpretations of the text. TLDR: It's in plain words in the Bible.
- It must be precise and unambiguous. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if meaningless philosophical musings or multiple possible ideas could fulfill the foreknowledge, because ambiguity prevents one from knowing whether the foreknowledge was intentional rather than accidental. TLDR: Vague "predictions" don't count.
- It must be improbable. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it reasonably could be the result of a pure guess, because foreknowledge requires a person to actually know something true, while a correct guess doesn't mean that the guesser knows anything. This also excludes contemporary beliefs that happened be true but were believed to be true without solid evidence. TLDR: Lucky guesses don't count.
- It must have been unknown. A statement cannot be Biblical foreknowledge if it reasonably could be the result of an educated guess based off contemporary knowledge, because foreknowledge requires a person to know a statement when it would have been impossible, outside of supernatural power, for that person to know it. TLDR: Ideas of the time don't count.
Now although I don't agree with scholars saying Daniel was produced in the second century B.C, using their date still refutes your claim that Christians worked backwards to justify a date.
Daniel said Messiah would be cut off, and that the prince would come in and destroy the sanctuary. Same thing Jesus said in the Scriptures and was fulfilled. They crucified him and Titus came in and destroyed the city and the temple. Secular History teaches BOTH EVENTS HAPPENING, and you can't refute it with your conjecture.